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Showing posts with label NDA. Show all posts
Showing posts with label NDA. Show all posts

Monday, 18 March 2019


nda past questions on mathematics 2013

1. Find the product (2x2y-2z7)(3x2y4z-7)
A.  x5y2z5
B.  6x5y2z5
C.  6x5yz5
D.  6x4z5

Friday, 15 March 2019


1. Economics is a science which deals with ____.
A. the factors or production
B. oil exploration
C. allocation of scarce resources
D. the gross. domestic product (GDP)

2. An effective way to controlling inflation in a mixed economy is to ____.
A. increase productivity
B. reduce income tax
C.  ration available output
D. increase imports

3. Demand patterns are determined by the market on the basis of ____.
A. scale of preference
B. consumer sovereignty
C. consumer rationality
D. price of the commodity

4. If the demand for one commodity excludes another, it is said to be ____.
A. complementary
B. competitive demand
C. composite demand
D. derived demand

5. When 20 units of output are produced, TC will be ____.
A. 360
B. 300
C. 460
D. 400

Price (₦)
Qty (bags)
From the table above, the price elasticity of supply is ____.
A. 4
B. 25
C. 1
D. 2

Use the diagram below to answer Questions 7 and 8.

 7. The average total cost when 20 units are produced is ____.
A. 20.00
B. 23.00
C. 13.00
D. 15.00

8. A country achieves economic development when there is ____.
A. an increase in military expenditure
B. an increase in capacity utilization
C. a sustained increase in per capita income
D. an even distribution of goods and services

9. The transfer of public shareholding, in corporations to private enterprises is ____.
A. concession
B. incorporation
C. commercialization
D. privatization

Given the demand and supply equations Qd = 120,000 - 20,000P
and Qs = 20,000P,
Answer Questions 10 and 11.

10. What is the equilibrium price?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

11. What is the equilibrium quantity?
A. 60,000
B. 40,000
C. 80,000
D. 45,000

12. The middlemen in the chain of distribution are
A. retailers and consumers
B. manufacturer and consumer
C. wholesalers and retailers
D. consumer and wholesalers

13. The Central Bank of Nigeria creates liquidity in the economy through
A. Exchange control
B. Demand and savings
C. Monetary policy
D. Fiscal policy

14. When government revenue in a fiscal year is less than its expenditure, we have a ____.
A. financial statement
B. balanced budget
C. deficit budget
D. surplus budget

15. if the growth rate of available resources continuously outpaces that of the population a country will experience ____.
A.   under population
B. optimum population
C. maximum population
D. over population

16. The equilibrium wage rate in an economy is determined by the ____.
A. workers' union
B. supply and demand for labour
C. rate of inflation
D. efficiency of labour

17. Composite demand refers to ____.
A. some commodities that serve two or more purposes
B. products which have no clear relationship with one another
C. commodities which are consumed jointly
D. all of the above

18. An economic system in which means of production belong to private
individuals is known as ____.
A. Communism
B. Mixed economic system
C. The capitalist mode of production
D. Central planning system

19. The elasticity of supply shows the responsiveness of ____.
A. supply to demand
B. demand to supply
C. supply to changes in price
D. demand to changes in price

20. The sized labour force of a country depends on but one of the following factors
A. official employment age
B. the pursuit of higher education
C. proportion of men not willing to work
D. age composite of population

21. Suppose 201l is given as the base and the national income for 2012 is 3600,000
and the index number for 2011 is 3200. Calculate the real income for 2012.
A. 3300000
B. 230(1000
C. 4300,000
D. 6400.000

22. NEPAD means ___.
A. Nigerian European Partnership for Africa's Development
B. New Partnership for Advancement of Democracy
C. New Partnership for Africa's Democracy
D. New Partnership for Africa's Development

23. The account that shows the actual transfer of money from one country to the
other is called ____.
A. Capital account
B. Foreign account
C. Foreign exchange account
D. Domiciliary account

24. For an inferior good, a decrease in income will lead to ____.
A. a lower equilibrium price
B. a change in the quantity demanded
C. an outward shift of the demand curve
D. an inward shift of the demand curve

25. Statutory organizations usually established by acts of parliament are called ____.
A. public corporations
B. cooperative societies
C. joint stock companies
D. public enterprises

26. Taxes and government expenditure are instruments of ____.
A. tax policy
B. economic policy
C. monetary policy
D. fiscal policy

27. Farmers' income may fall if they produce more cash crops for export because ____.
A. foreign demand is inelastic
B. of domestic currency depreciation
C. the price of the crops will rise
D. of export duties

28. A firm with a marginal cost equals its marginal revenue will produce the equilibrium output of
A. pure competition only
B. pure monopoly only
C. monopolistic competition only
D. any type of market

29. The migration of young people from rural to urban areas in Nigeria should help to raise the ____.
A. standard of living in urban areas
B. marginal productivity of labour in urban areas
C. total productivity of labour in rural areas
D. marginal productivity of labour in rural areas

30. Money becomes a very poor store of value in the period of ____.
A. deflation
B. stable price
C. recession
D. inflation

31. One of the effects of an increased minimum wage in Nigeria is ____.
A. to create voluntary unemployment
B. to decrease the wage rate
C. to increase the level of unemployment
D. to create involuntary unemployment

32. In a capitalist economy. the economic problem of what goods to Produce is divided mainly by:
A. shadow prices
B. relative prices
C. profit level
D. a central planner

33. National debt is an expected outcome of ____.
A. consolidated budget
B. deficit budget
C. balanced budget
D. surplus budget

34. One way of correcting the balance of payments problem of a country is to
A. introduce import — promotion measures
B. buy investments abroad
C. devalue the currency
D. de-emphasize import - substitution industries

35. The theory of comparative advantage states that a commodity should be produced
in that nation where the
A. absolute money cost is least
B. absolute cost is least
C. production possibility curve increases
D. opportunity cost is least

36. An 'adverse environmental impact of the petroleum industry on the economy is
A. oil spillage
B. the vandalization of oil equipment
C. communal riots
D.    community development

37. When importation of a commodity is limited to a definite quantity, the trade
control means used is known a ____.
A. quota
B. tax relief
C. devaluation
D. exchange control

38. A discount house is a market where ____.
A. various bills are exchanged
B. short-term and medium-term loans are obtained
C. shares are bought and sold
D. short-term loans are obtained

39. Economic growth is different from economic development because economic growth ____.
A. describes expansion and change
B. is measurable but not objective
C. describes expansion and not change
D. is not measurable but objective

40. In economics, the concept of utility means:
A. the monetary value of the goods we consume
B. the total value of all the goods and services consumed
C. the amount of satisfaction we derive from the consumption of goods and services
D. the utilization of goods and services

1. C
2. A
3. B
4. B
5. B
6. C
7. D
8. C
9. D
10. A
11. A
12. C
13. C
14. C
15. B
16. B
17. A
18. C
19. C
20. C
21. A
22. D
23. A
24. B
25. D
26. D
27. B
28. D
29. B
30. C
31. D
32. A
33. B
34. C
35. B
36. A
37. A
38. A
39. B
40. C

Wednesday, 13 March 2019


nda past questions on biology 2012

1.   _____ is the solution used in the test for glucose
A. salt solution
B. sugar solution
C. Fehling's solution
D. Benedict's solution

2. The rate of transpiration in plants can be measured using _____.
A. ammeter
B. photometer
C. photometer
D. barometer

3. A complete set of genetic instructions for any organism is its _____.
A. gene
B. genetic code
C. genome
D. nucleotide

4. The two basis of organic evolution includes _____.
A. variation and heredity
B. soil and water
C. nutrition and decomposition
D. adaptation and irritability

5. The term used for short-sightedness is _____.
A. hypernatremia
B. glaucoma
C. myopia
D. astigmatism

6. Sickle-cell anaemia is a
A. nutritionally deficient disease
B. genetically modified disease
C. the disease caused by environmental changes
D. pathogenic disease

7. One of the following is the embryonic membrane which forms the fluid-filled sac that encloses and protects the embryo
A. Oviduct
B. Uterine wall
C. placenta
D. amnion

8. One or the following pairs of insects arc the common agents of pollination
A. flies and mosquitoes
B. wasp and aphids
C. butterflies and bees
Grasshoppers and beetles

9. In mammals. one of the following acts as both digestive and endocrine organ
A. liver
B. spleen
C. pancreas
D. stomach

10. The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal region by a dome-shaped muscle called
A. pleural muscle
B. thoracic muscles
C. intercostal muscle
D. plenary muscle

11. One of the following chemical equations summarizes the photosynthetic process in plants
A. 6CO2+ 6H2O→ C6H12 O6 + 6O2
B. CO2 +O2    →        C6H6O6 + 6O2
C. C6 H6 06 +602  →   C02 + 02

D. H20 + 6O2   →    12H20↑

12. odontoid process is found in the vertebra, is
A. atlas
B. axis
C. thoracic
D. caudal

13. ____ is the removal of trees from an area adequate re-planting
A. afforestation
B. &forestation
C.. conservation
D. non-conservation

14. The hormone which tones-up the muscles of a person in time of clanger is produced by ____.
A. the thyroid gland
B. the liver
C. Adrenal gland
D. Pancreas

15. Metabolism consists of two processes which are ____.
A. anabolism and catabolism
B. oxidation and reduction
C. photosynthesis and respiration
D. catabolism and composition

Which of the organisms lack a cell wall?
A. Algae
B. Fungi
C. Bacteria
D. None of the above

17. Which of the following blood component has the greatest affinity for oxygen?
A. Blood plasma
B. Leucocytes
C. Erythrocytes
D. Thrombocytes

18. The aspects of photosynthesis that does not require light is known as ___.
A. Dark reaction
B. Photonilosis
C. Carbonification
D. Chlorotechnic

19. This is not a unicellular organism
A. Hydra
B. Paramecium
C. Chlorella
D. Euglena

20. Which of the following statements is not true of bacteria?
A. colonies are visible to the unaided eyes
B. colonies are derived from single cells
C. colonies can only be seen with the aid of a microscope
D. colonies have their distinct characteristics

21. Examples of competitors are ___.
A. lizard and mouse
B. snake and lizard
C. grasshopper and mouse
D. rabbit and snake

22. One of the adaptations of life on trees by a monkey is its possession of digits which are ___.
A. extensible
B. big
C. opposable
D. long

23. The community of plants in which the same .species occur from year to year is the ___.
A. annual species
pioneer vegetation
C. perennial species
D. climax vegetation

24. The most common means of transmitting the Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
(AIDS) is ____.
A. from the mother to child
B. through blood transmission
C. through sexual intercourse
D. through sharing of needles

25. Plants tend to prevent overcrowding by means of efficient ___.
A. water uptake
B. seed germination
C. pollination
D. seed disposal

26. The physical and climatic factors of a region primarily determine the ____.
A. kinds of animals inhabiting the area
B. types of plants found in the area
C. nature of the soil in that region
D. community of organisms in the region

27. A step in the movement of energy through an ecosystem is a description that best fits the
term ___.
A. food chain
B. tropic level
C. pyramids of numbers
D. food webs

28. In a field experiment, the frequency of waterleaf was observed to be 48 after 20 tosses of a 2m2quadrant. What is the density of the plant in the field?
A. 1.2 per m2
B. 2.4 per m2
C. 4.8 per m2
D. 9.6 per m2

29. The supporting tissues of xylem are most poorly developed in ___.
A. mangrove swamp plants
B. grassland swamp plants
C. submerged water plants
D. desert plants

30. The addition of lime to clay soil serves ___.
A. aid water retention
B. close up the texture
C. prevent water-logging
D. improve capillary action

31. The oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes from ___.
A. water
B. chlorophyll
C. carbon dioxide
D. sunlight

32. Another name for white blood cell is ___.
A. Erythrocytes
B. Leukocytes
C. Phagocytes
D. Thromnocytes

33. A corm is ___.
A. an underground stem
B. an underground tuber
C. a rhizome
D. a bulb

34. Which of the following substances is not transported by the blood in a mammal?
A. mineral salts
B. hormones
C. bile
D. oxygen

35. Xerophthalmia is an inflammation of ___.
A. Outer and inner ear
B. iris and cornea
C. cornea and conjunctiva
D. iris and corona

36. In plants, the structure that performs a •similar function with the testis in mammals is the
A. stigma
B. filament
C. anther
D. receptacle

37. The bacteria type (bat arc arranged in chains are the ___.
A. staphylococci
B. clostridia
C. streptococci
D. Bacilli

38. The most abundant group of organisms in the animal kingdom is ___.
A. mammalia
B. aves
C. annalida
D. insecta

39. Radial symmetry is a feature common to the ___.
A. platyhelminth
B. nematodes
C. concentrates
D. arthropods

40. Which of the following is used mainly for balancing ___?
A. the caudal fin
B. the pectoral fin
C. the anal fin
D. the dorsal tin


  1. D
  2. B
  3. C
  4. A
  5. C
  6. B
  7. D
  8. C
  9. C
  10. D
  11. A
  12. C
  13. B
  14. C
  15. A
  16. D
  17. C
  18. A
  19. A
  20. C
  21. B
  22. A
  23. D
  24. C
  25. D
  26. B
  27. A
  28. C
  29. D
  30. A
  31. B
  32. A
  33. C
  34. C
  35. C
  36. C
  37. C
  38. D
  39. C
  40. B

Tuesday, 12 March 2019


nda past questions on geography 2012

Use the map of OPATA County to answer Questions 1 -5.


1. The most approximate bearing or Sanda From Gana is ___.
B. 5˚
C. Approximately 130˚

2. The likely occupation engaged in by the settlers of Junta is  ___.
A. farming
B. weaving
C. mining

3. Point M a seen the map represents
A. train station
B. church
C. trigonometric station
D. triangle point

4. Symbol X on the map is placed on
A. hill
B. saddle
C. plateau
D. Knoll

5. Munu settlement are likely to be  ___.
A. traders
B. fishermen
C. weaving
D. farming

6. Which of the following differentiates between folds and faults
A. folds is a result of compressional forces but faults are associated with cracks or-fractures
B. folds takes place when the crust cracks and faults are the result of direct force
C. folds are the causes of block mountains while faults cause volcano
D. None of the above

7. The most outstanding feature of an equatorial climate is  ___.
A. its great uniformity of temperature throughout the year
B. lack of rainfall to supply luxuriant vegetation growth
C. lack of cloud cover almost throughout the year
D. None of the above

8. An occurrence of volcanoes is closely related to regions that have been intensely  ___.
A. cultivated
B. flooded
C. eroded
D. folded

9. Which of the following landforms results from wind deposition
A. Arete
B. Bajada
C. Bacham
D. Fam

10. A depression between two hills that enhances communication
A. rift valley
B. a knoll
C. a saddle
D. a pass

11. The erosive power of a strong wind k reduced when the  ___.
A. soil is not covered by vegetation
B. soil is dry
C. land is overgrazed
D. soil is wet

12. In a forested region, one human activity likely to be embarked on is  ___.
A. mining
B. fishing
C. lumbering
D. All of the above

13. Physical factors affecting the distribution of vegetation include all of the following except  ___.
A. soil nutrient
B. Human beings
C. daylight
D. water

14. A place where water enters the ground is called  ___.
A. water recharge
B. water discharge
C. water source
D. underground water

15. A river carries its load by  ___.
A. traction
B. saltation
C. suspension
D. All of the above

16. A station where weather elements are studied and recorded is called  ___.
A. Train station
B. Air station
C. Weather station
D. Geography station

17. An instrument used for measuring the direction of the wind is called  ___.
A. Barometer
B. Windsock
C. Wind hook
D. Thermometer

18. The study of the atmospheric conditions of a place over a given period is called  ___.
A. Astronomy
B. Weather
C. Climate
D. Research

19. The best way to prevent a watershed from degradation is through  ___.
A. interbasin transfer
B. forest reservation
C. crop production
D. fuelwood extraction

20. Some of the physical properties of soil are  ___.
A. texture, structure and porosity
B. nutrients, acidity and colour
C. structure, colour and alkalinity
D. nutrients, acidity and texture

21. In Geography, action space simply means  ___.
A. industrial space
B. marketing space
C. awareness space
D. universal space

22. One of the following is the dominant staple food grown widely in S. E. Asia
A. Sorghum
B. Rice
C. Yarn

23. Fog is formed
A. when very moist air cooled below its dew-point
B. during a clear dry day
C. as a result of lightning
D. None of the above

24. All of the following are effects of earth rotation, except:
A. light
B. air motion
C. heat
D. pollution

25. One of the following knot directly related to population studies
A. the balance between males and females
B. size of population
C. the ratio of adults to children
D. growth of towns and villages

26. Which of the following regions has the highest population density in Nigeria?
A. Western region
B. West-Central
C. North-Central
D. East.Central

27. Which of the following theories explains the relationship between population and subsistence.
A. the demographic transition theory
B. the migratory push-pull theory
C. the Malthusian theory
D. the gravity theory

28. The largest city in Europe is  ___.
A. Paris
B. London
C. Berlin
D. Moscow  

29. The largest city in Africa south of the Sahara is  ___.
A. Cairo
B. lbadan
C. Johannesburg
D. Kinshasa

30. The most populated city in the world over a million inhabitants is  ___.
A. Tokyo
B. Glasgow
C. Moscow
D. Manchester

31. The main advantage of plane tabling as a survey method is that it  ___.
A. is a fast method
B. gives accurate results in most situations
C. is an all-weather method
D. requires little or no skill to use

32. Bees and butterflies are important to flowering plants because they
A. pollinate the plants
B. satisfy human needs
C. produce honey
D. extract excess nectar

33. A depositional land-form occurring where streams emerge from a mountain area in a desert is  ___.
A. a self dune
B. a playa lake
C. a rock pedestal
D. an alluvial fan

34. The prairies of North America are
A. montane grasslands
B. temperate deserts
C. tropical grasslands
D. temperate grasslands

35. The Stevenson's screen is raised about one metre above the ground in order to avoid  ___.
A. raindrops entering it
B. the influence of strung whirs
C. the effects of nearby trees
D. the heat from the ground

36. The variable which is both a control and an element of weather and climate is  ___.
A. wind
B. air-mass
C. temperature
D. rainfall

37. The greatest threat to the world's wildlife population is  ___.
A. the poor management of game reserves
B. the development of zoological gardens
C. excessive hurting
D. the destruction of habitats

38. The formation of coal is associated with  ___.
A. landslide and deposition
B. earth movement and pressure
C. heat and pressure
D. earth tremor and heat

39. A hazard that could be traced directly to ozone layer depletion is the
A. escalation of the melting, of polar and temperate ice caps
B. introduction of ultraviolet rays into the troposphere
C. submergence of numerous coastal settlements in the world
D. extension of desert-like conditions to the savanna

40. An example of a land-form produced by glaciations is  ___.
A. a cirque
B. a sand-dune
C. an ox-how lake
D.an inselberg


  1. D
  2. C
  3. C
  4. C
  5. B
  6. A
  7. A
  8. D
  9. C
  10. D
  11. D
  12. C
  13. C
  14. A
  15. D
  16. C
  17. C
  18. C
  19. A
  20. A
  21. D
  22. B
  23. A
  24. D
  25. D
  26. A
  27. C
  28. B
  29. A
  30. A
  31. A
  32. A
  33. D
  34. D
  35. A
  36. C
  37. C
  38. C
  39. A
  40. A