www.prep.ng: February 2019

Thursday, 28 February 2019

JAMB PAST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ON COMMERCE 2013 (TEXT)

       
JAMB PAST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ON COMMERCE 2013
 PAPER TYPE: D

1. Which question paper Type of commerce is given to you?
A. Type D
B. Type I
C. Type B
D. Type U

2. The type of labour that makes use of physical effort in production processes is the
A. unskilled labour
B. skilled labour
C. blue-collar job
D. white-collar job

3. The assembling of products into usable forms is known as
A. creation
B. manufacturing
C. construction
D. formation


4. The final link in the chain of distribution is
A. middlemen
B. wholesaling
C. consumer
D. retailing

5. A country is said to be experiencing an unfavourable balance of trade if her
A. exports exceed imports
B. visible exports exceed visible imports
C. imports and exports are equal
D. visible imports exceed visible exports


6. Trading position of Nigeria is the same as her
A. desire to trade with many countries
B. willingness to grant credit to foreigners
C. balance of trade
D. terms of trade

7. The role of customs and exercise authority includes the
A. provision of a good transport system to facilitate imports and exports
B. provision of security at the port
C. control of the flow of goods in and out of the country
D. provision of dockyards for ship repairs

8. The document lodged with the customs authorities before a ship can leave the port is a
A. shipping note
B. ship report
C. ship manifest
D. dock warrant

9. The document which must be endorsed by the ambassador of a country of destination before shipment of goods is a
A. consular invoice
B. certificate of origin
C. bill of lading
D. close indent

10. A country's terms of trade are said to improve when the ratio of her export
A. decreases
B. remains constant
C. increases
D. equals import

11. Which of the following advertising medium appeals to only the literate in the society?
A. radio advertising
B. print media advertising
C. television advertising
D. cinema advertising

12. The two main forms of communication are
A. oral and written
B. verbal and non-verbal
C. e-mail and fax
D. traditional and modern media

13. The most reliable and efficient means of conveying urgent documents is through
A. postal order
B. ordinary letters
C. registered letters
D. courier services

14. An undertaking given by a person to another assuring his integrity is
A. proximate cause
B. fidelity guarantee
C. subrogation
D. insurable interest

 Use the table below to answer question 15 and 16.
 
JAMB PAST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ON COMMERCE

15. If Mr. N takes a fire insurance policy with average clause, his compensation will be
A. ₦5000
B. ₦7, 500
C. ₦70, 000
D. ₦75, 000

16. What insurance principle has Mr. P Violated if he decides to overstate the actual value of his property?
A. Indemnity
B. Insurable interest
C. Uberrimae fidei
D. Subrogation

17. The difference between indemnity insurance and non-indemnity insurance is that the latter provides
A. cover for exporters against risks
B. cover for importers against risks
C. full payment to the insured
D. consolation payment to the insured

18. An importance of warehousing is in the
A. production of goods
B. transportation of goods
C. importation of goods
D. repackaging of goods

19. In order to increase the capital owned, a sole trader may
A. seek for bank loan
B. issue debentures
C. acquire extra shop fittings on credit
D. draw less of his profit for personal use

20. A business partner who provides capital but abstains from participation in administration of a firm is a
A. general partner
B. nominal partner
C. secret partner
D. dormant partner

21. Which of the following will not be stated in a Memorandum of Association?
A. Name clause
B. rights of shareholders
C. object clause
D. registered office

22. The amount of authorized capital that shareholders have subscribed to is
A. issued share capital
B. authorized share capital
C. owner's equity
D. working capital

23. The rate of turnover of a firm in a given year is 5 times while the average stock is ₦12,500. what is the turnover of the firm?
A. ₦24,000
B. ₦46,500
C. ₦62,500
D. ₦65,000

24. A lawyer that defrauds his client may be derobed by the Nigerian Bar association in order to
A. protect other lawyers
B. protect the integrity of the association
C. compensate the affected client
D. prevent the client from suing the association

25. In the Nigerian GSM industry, a parliament is organized by the Nigerian Communications Commission in order to
A. increase profit of service providers
B. protect the interest of government
C. encourage more people into the business
D. protect the interest of consumers

26. Trade fairs in Nigeria are organised by
A. the Federal Government
B. Manufacturers'' Association of Nigeria
C. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
D. Chambers of Commerce

27. Money is generally accepted for transactions due to
A. the legal backing
B. the rule of law
C. its acceptability in the global market
D. the Central Bank Governor's signature

28. Which of the following is a quality of money?
A. Availability
B. Scarcity
C. Indivisibility
D. Convertibility

29. Money can simply be referred to as a
A. measure of value
B. standard of value
C. means of settlement
D. durable asset for doing business

30. Gilt-edged securities are issued mainly by
A. individuals
B. non-governmental organisations
C. Government
D. multi-national companies

31. The initial function of a manager is
A. setting up an organisation
B. coordinating
C. planning
D. provision of welfare package

32. The most suitable organizational structure for small or medium sized enterprises is
A. line structure
B. staff structure
C. committee structure
D. functional structure

33. In a staff-authority relationship, the opinion of a specialist in one department to another is
A. a directive
B. an advice
C. a command
D. a delegation

34. Management of a business involves the development of ideas for the
A. distribution of goods and services that human wants
B. transportation of goods and services that human wants
C. transfer of title of ownership of goods and services to individuals
D. production of goods and services that satisfy human needs

35. Which of the following is used as a pricing policy?
A. Packaging
B. Market selection
C. Labelling
D. Market skimming

36. The essential utility derived from the use of a product is known as
A. augmented benefit
B. branded benefit
C. core benefit
D. formal benefit

37. The breaking down of a market into separate and identifiable elements is known as
A. differentiation
B. segmentation
C. skimming
D. penetration

38. A contract that is acknowledged before the law court is referred to as
A. informal contract
B. formal contract
C. contract of records
D. specialty contract

39. An agent employed to sell goods delivered to him by the principal is referred to as a
A. special agent
B. del credere agent
C. factor
D. universal agent

40. A motor dealer who agreed to sell a car to Mr. X but delivered it to Mr. Y on the delivery date agreed with Mr. X. He has discharged the contract by
A. performance
B. frustration
C. an agreement
D. breach

41. A contract can be terminated through
A. physical combat
B. family intervention
C. frustration
D. consultation

42. The right to retain possession of goods until the contract price is paid is referred to as
A. a promise
B. ultra vires
C. a breach
D. a lien


43. The sole legal right held by the author to publish his book is
A. trademark
B. copyright
C. patent right
D. bookmark

44. The process of transferring data from one computer to another is referred to as
A. downloading
B. faxing
C. browsing
D. decoding

45. The physical component of a computer system is
A. software
B. hardware
C. hard disk
D. floppy disk

46. A computer accessory through which information can be retrieved is the
A. hard disk
B. input device
C. control unit
D. floppy disk

47. The type of computer software used mainly for management information is
A. Corel draw
B. AutoCAD
C. data base
D. word perfect

48. To meet security requirements before gaining access to data, a computer operator supplies
A. an e-mail address
B. a yahoo address
C. a password
D. a modem

49. A major factor that affects business operations is
A. technology
B. supply
C. product
D. rivalry

50. The environmental hazard that is most difficult to control is
A. land pollution
B. water pollution
C. air pollution
D. political unrest


ANSWER KEYS:

1. A
2. A
3. C
4. C
5. D
6. A
7. C
8. C
9. B
10. C
11. B
12. B
13. D
14. B
15. B
16. C
17. D
18. A
19. D
20. D
21. C
22. B
23. C
24. B
25. D
26. D
27. A
28. A
29. A
30. C
31. B
32. A
33. B
34. D
35. D
36. C
37. B
38. B
39. B
40. D
41. D
42. A
43. B
44. A
45. B
46. D
47. C
48. C
49. A
50. C


JAMB PAST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ON COMMERCE 2015 (TEXT)


JAMB PAST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ON COMMERCE 201
1. A proforma invoice is not required when __.
A. dealing regularly with a customer
B. quoting for the supply of goods
C. goods are sent on approval
D. final prices are uncertain

2. A distinguishing characteristic of a limited liability company is that __.
A. is a collection of many sole proprietors
B. can sue and be sued
C. is a multiple partnership
D. has limited resources

3. Construction activities include the building of houses and roads as well as __.
A. shoe-making
B. black smiting
C. brick laying
D. car assembling

4. Which of the following information is contained in the Articles of Association of a limited liability company?
A. Objectives of the company
B. Rights and obligations of directors
C. Amount of share capital
D. Limitation of liability of share holders

5. Which of the following contributed least to the evolution of commercial activities in Nigeria?
A. Development of banks
B. Development of transportation
C. Development of currencies
D. Development of trader's union

6. One of the factors which critically determines the choice of occupation is __.
A. skill
B. training
C. interest
D. aptitude

7. Tourists with no fixed address in a town may receive letters from the post office through __.
A. poste resante
B. recorded delivery
C. post master
D. parcel post

8. On liquidation of a public limited liability company, the residual owners are the __.
A. debenture holders
B. creditors
C. preference shareholders
D. ordinary shareholders

9. The major factors that facilitate merchandising are __.
A. banking, insurance and transportation
B. management, insurance, and advertising
C. communication, advertising, and banking
D. trading, warehousing and production

10. The pivot on which the wheel of commerce rotates is __.
A. tariff
B. taxation
C. price
D. trade

11. The major procedures in the purchase and sale of goods are enquiry __.
A. order, sale and invoice
B. quotation, order and invoice
C. placement, order and invoice
D. bargain, order and invoice

12. An advantage of hire purchase to the customer is the __.
A. low interest rate chargeable
B. increase in turn over and profits
C. economics of scale in production
D. possession of goods before payment

13. The agency in Nigeria which ensures that products confirm to government quality specifications is the
A.       Nigerian Consumers Association
B.       Standards Organization of Nigeria
C.      Nigerian Chamber of Commerce
D.      Manufacturer's Association of Nigeria.

14.     The most widely used computer language that focuses on solving science-oriented problems is __.
A. COBOL
B. ADA
C. BASIC
D. FORTRAN

15. An essential factor for evaluating the different sources of funds for a business is the __.
A. ownership structure of the business concern
B. burden of cost and repayment
C. size and the type of the business
D. decree establishing the business

16. In the primary market, new shares are issued through __.
A. personal selling, publicity and advertising
B. advertising, a prospectus and a bill of exchange
C. a prospectus, an offer for sale and placing
D. a prospectus, offer for sale and a bill of exchange

17. One of the advantages of commercialization is that it __.
A. increases the salaries of workers
B. encourages entrepreneurship
C. gives workers on-the-job training
D. motivates government to establish more business

18.
From the above data, calculate the rate of turn over.
A. 218 times
B. 3.50 times
C. 3.00 times
D. 2.00 times

19. Which of the following confirms the accuracy of the duty charged on imported goods?
A. Consular invoice
B. An indent
C. Shipping note
D. import duty

20. The type of communication from a superior to a subordinate in an organization is referred to as __.
A. downward communication
B. horizontal communication
C. lateral communication
D. upward communication

21. The safety and quality of products are the social responsibility of __.
A. the Manufacturer's Association of Nigeria
B. the Corporate Affairs Commission
C. business organization
D. the Standard Organization of Nigeria

22. The members of ECOWAS include?
A. Togo, Nigeria and Ghana
B. Burkina Faso, Nigeria, Niger and Mauritania
C. Guinea, Mali, Cameroon and Nigeria
D. Nigeria, Chad, Gabon and Cape Verde

23. One of the functions of Nigeria Ports Authority is the provision of __.
A. facilities to ensure that goods get to their destinations
B. courier services to ensure specific delivery
C. shelter for operators of cargoes
D. facilities to enhance the speedy loading and offloading of cargoes

24. A document which advertises the shares of a company is known as __.
A. deed
B. prospectus
C. dividend warrant
D. memorandum of satisfaction

25. An association to which all Chambers of Commerce in Nigeria are affiliated is the __.
A. National Association of Chambers of Commerce
B. Nigeria Labour Congress
C. Nigeria Stock Exchange
D. Nigeria Association of Chambers of Commerce, Industry, Mines and Agriculture

26. An aspect of commerce that facilitates the distribution of product is __.
A. advertising
B. branding
C. transportation
D. trading

27. Unresolved disputes between the employer and employees are usually referred to the __.
A. industrial arbitration tribunal
B. disciplinary committee
C. code of conduct bureau
D. personal unit

28. A chain store usually combines the features of __.
A. hyper markets and stalls 
B. multiple shops and hyper markets
C. multiple shops and departmental shops
D. mail order business and multiple shop

29. Which of the following is a matter of personal preference on the part of a superior officer?
A. Delegation of authority
B. Unity of direction
C. Span of control
D. Unity of command

30. Manufacturing and constructive activities are classified under __.
A. direct-service
B. primary production
C. tertiary production
D. secondary production

31.
From the diagram above, what does I stand for?
A. Publicity
B. Home trade
C. Aids to trade
D. Advertising

32. The three main classification of occupation are
A. industry, commerce and services.
B. manufacturing, industry and trading
C. farming, banking and trading
D. construction, trade and services

33. The person who undertakes life assurance is said to be an __.
A. assurer
B. insurer
C. insured
D. assured

34. A business organization must always consider the overall effect of its actions on the __.
A. profit
B. society
C. product
D. competitor

35. An undertaking given by a person to another assuring his integrity is __.
A. subrogation
B. insurable interest
C. proximate clause
D. fidelity guarantee

36. Which of the following is a quality of money?
A. scarcity
B. availability
C. convertibility
D. indivisibility

37. The distribution of petroleum products in Nigeria is through __.
A. the bank
B. air
C. sea
D. road

38. The business that focuses attention on the quality of the goods produced by precisely knowing what the consumers desire is said to be operating the
A. marketing concept
B. promotion mix
C. product orientation
D. product mix.

39.  A floating policy is an example of __.
A. marine insurance
B. motor insurance
C. fire insurance
D. actuaries insurance

40. The art of soap making is an example of __.
A. construction  occupation
B. tertiary occupation
C. primary occupation
D. secondary occupation


ANSWERS

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. B
5. D
6. A
7. A
8. D
9. A
10. D
11. B
12. D
13. B
14. D
15. A
16. D
17. B
18. A
19. A
20. A
21. D
22. A
23. D
24. B
25. D
26. C
27. A
28. C
29. A
30. D
31. C
32. A
33. C
34. A
35. D
36. B
37. B
38. A
39. D
40. B



JAMB PAST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ON CHEMISTRY 2015 (TEXT)

jamb past questions and answers on chemistry 2015

1. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The average kinetic enemy of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature
B. At constant temperature, the volume of a gas increases as the pressure increases
C. The pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume
D. The temperature of gas is directly proportional to its volume

2.  Which are the correct IUPAC names for H – CO2CH3 and CH CH ?
A.  Methyl methanoate and ethene
B.  Metanoic acid and ethyne
C.  Ethyl methanoate and ethyne
D. Methyl methanoate and ethyne

3. A solution X on mixing with AgNO3 solution, gives a white precipitate soluble in NH3(aq). A solution Y, when added to X, also gives a white precipitate which is soluble on boiling. Solution Y contains __.
A.  Ag+ ion
B.  Pb2+ ion
C.  Pb4+ ion
D. Zn2+ ion

4.  Methane is a member of the homologous series called __.
A.  alkenes
B.  alcohols
C.  esters
D.  alkanes

5. Which of the following bonds exists in crystalline ammonium chloride (NH4CL)?
A.  ionic covalent
B.  ionic and co-ordinate
C.  ionic, covalent and co- ordinate
D.  covalent, co-ordinate and metallic

6.  Some copper (II) sulphate pentahydrate (CuSO4 5H2O), was heated at 120°C with the following results: Wt of crucible = 10.00 g; Wt of crucible + CuSO4.5H2O = 14.98g; Wt of crucible + residue = 13.54 g. How many molecules of water of crystallization were lost? [H= 1, Cu = 63.5, O =16, S = 32]
A.  1
B.  2
C.  3
D.  4


jamb past questions and answers on chemistry 2015

7.  Which of the curves shown above represents the relationships between the volume (v) and pressure (p) of an ideal gas at constant temperature?
A.  1
B.  2
C.  3
D.  4

8. 12.0g of a mixture of potassium carbonate and potassium chloride were dissolved in a 250cm3 standard flask. 25cm3 of this solution required 40.00cm3 of 0.1 M HCI for neutralization. What is the percentage by weight of = 16, C = 12)? K2CO3 in the mixture (K = 39, O = 16, C = 12)
A.  60
B.  72
C.  82
D.  92

9.  Which of the following groups of physical properties increases from left to right of the Periodic Table? 
1. Ionization energy 
2. Atomic radius 
3. Electro-negativity 
4. Electron affinity

A.  1 and 2
B.  1, 2 and 3
C.  3 and 4
D. 1,2,3 and 4

10. An element Z, contained 90%Its relative atomic mass is __.
A.  16.0
B.  16.2
C.  17.0
D.  17.8

11. What are the possible oxidation numbers for an element if its atomic number is 17?
A.  -1 and 7
B.  -1 and 6
C.  -3 and 5
D. -2 and 6

12.   How many valence electrons are contained in the element represented by
A.  3
B.  5
C.  15
D. 31

13. 10.0 dm3 of air containing H2S as an impurity was passed through a solution of Pb(NO3)2 until all the H2S had reacted. The precipitate of PbS was found to weigh 5.02 g. According to the equation: Pb(NO3)2 + H2S PbS + 2HNO3 the percentage by volume of hydrogen sulphide in the air is
A.  50.2
B.  47.0
C.  4.70
D. 0.47

14. A quantity of air was passed through a weighed amount of alkaline pyrogallol. An increase in the weight of the pyrogallol would result from the absorption of __.
A.  nitrogen
B.  neon
C.  argon
D. oxygen

15.  Water for town supply is chlorinated to make it free from __.
A.  bad odour
B.  bacteria
C.  temporary hardness
D. permanent hardness

16.  4.0 g of sodium hydroxide in 250 cm3 of solution contains __.
A.  0.40 moles per dm3
B.  0.10 moles per dm3
C.  0.04 moles per dm3
D. 0.02 moles per dm3

17. A major effect of oil pollution in coastal waters is the __.
A.  destruction of marine life
B.  desalination of the water
C.  increase in the acidity of the water
D. detoxification of the water

18.  In general, an increase in temperature increases the solubility of a solute in water because __.
A.  more solute molecules collide with each other
B.  most solutes dissolve with the evolution of heat
C.  more solute molecules dissociate at higher temperatures
D. most solutes dissolve with absorption of heat

19. The relatively high boiling points of alkanols are due to __.
A.  ionic bonding
B.  aromatic character
C.  covalent bonding
D. hydrogen bonding

20. Given that 15.00 cm3 of H2SO4 was required to completely neutralize 25.00 cm3 of 0.125 mol dm3 NaOH, calculate the molar concentration of the acid solution
A.     0.925 mol dm3
B.  0.156 mol dm3
C.  0.104 mol dm3
D.     0.023 mol dm3

21. What volume of 0.1 mol dm3 solution of tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid would be needed to dissolve 2.86g of sodium trioxocarbonate (IV) decahydrate crystals?
A.     20cm3
B.  40cm3
C.  80cm3
D. 100cm3
[H = 1, C = 12, O = 16, S= 32, Na 23].

22. The solution with the lowest pH value is __.
A. 5 ml of  M/10 HCL
B.  10 ml of  M/10 HCL
C.   15ml of M/5 HCL
D. 20ml of M/8 HCL


23. In which order are the following salts sensitive to light?
A.  Agl > AgCl > AgBr
B.  AgCl> Agl > AgBr
C.  AgBr > AgCI > Agl
D. AgCI > AgBr > Agl

24.   A metal m displaces Zinc from Zinc chloride solution. This shows that __.
A.  M is more electronegative than Zinc
B.  Zinc is above hydrogen in the series
C.  M is more electropositive than zinc
D. electrons flow from zinc to m

25.   Steam changes the colour of anhydrous cobalt (II) chloride from
A.  blue to pink
B.   white to red
C.  white to green
D.  blue to white

26.  When at equilibrium, which of the reactions below will shift to the right if the pressure is increased and the temperature is kept constant?
A.  2SO3(g) === 2SO2(g) + O2(g)
B.  2CO2(g) === 2CO(g) + O2(g)
C.  2H2(g) + O2(g) === 2H2O(g)
D. 2NO(g) === N2(g) + O2(g)

27. 2CO(g) + O2(g) 2Co2(g)
Given that ΔH [CO] is -110.4 kJmol-1 and ΔH [CO2] is -393.0 kJmol-1, the energy change for the reaction above is  __.
A.  -503.7 kJ
B.  -282.6 kJ
C.  +282.6 kJ
D. +503.7 kJ

28. Which of these properties gives a solid its definite shape?
A.  Strong inter-molecular attraction
B.  High melting point
C.  High boiling point
D. Weak inter-molecular attraction

29. When a crystal was added to the clear solution of its salt, the crystal did not dissolve and the solution remained unchanged. This showed that the solution was  __.
A.  supersaturated
B.  concentrated
C.  unsaturated
D. saturated

30.  If the electron configuration of an element is 1s22s22p5, how many unpaired electrons are there?
A.  2
B.  5
C.  1
D. 4

31. The substance that is used in the steel industry for the removal of carbon, sulphur and phosphorus impurities from pig iron is  __.
A.  oxygen
B.  chlorine
C.  nitrogen
D. hydrogen

32. Hydrogen sulphide gas can act as  __.
A.  an oxidizing agent
B.  a dehydrating agent
C.  a bleaching agent
D. a precipitating agent

33. Which of the following is used as a rocket fuel?
A.  HNO3
B.  CH3COOH
C.  H2SO4
D. HCI
34. The bleaching action of chlorine is effective due to the presence of  __.
A.  Hydrogen chloride
B.  Water
C.  Air
D. Oxygen

35. Mineral acids are usually added to commercial hydrogen peroxide to  __.
A.  Oxidize it
B.  decompose it
C.  minimize its decomposition
D. reduce it to water and oxygen

36. Aluminium containers are frequently used to transport trioxonitrate (v) acid because aluminium
A.  has a low density
B.  does not react with the acid
C.  does not corrode
D. has a silvery - white appearance

37.  Ethyne is passed through a hot tube containing organo-nickel catalyst to produce  __.
A.  Isoprene
B.  polythene
C.  ethanol
D. benzene

38. The process of converting starch to ethanol is  __.
A.  cracking
B.  distillation
C.  fermentation
D. oxidation

39. An endothermic reaction is one during which heat is ____and can be represented by the symbol____. Which of the following combinations can be used accurately to complete the above definition?
A.  liberated -ΔH
B.  liberated +ΔH
C.  absorbed -ΔH
D. absorbed +ΔH

40.  Consider the following exothermic reaction 2SO2(g) + O2(g) = 2SO3(g). If the temperature of the reaction is reduced from 800C to 500°C, and no other change takes place, then  __.
A.  the reaction rate increases
B.  concentration of SO2 decreases
C.  concentration of SO2 increases
D. SO2 gas becomes unreactive

ANSWERS

1. A
2. D
3. B
4. D
5. C
6. D
7. C
8. D
9. C
10. B
11. A
12. B
13. C
14. D
15. B
16. A
17. C
18. C
19. D
20. C
21. D
22. D
23. D
24. C
25. A
26. C
27. B
28. A
29. D
30. C
31. A
32. D
33. A
34. B
35. C
36. B
37. D
38. C
39. D
40. C