www.prep.ng: 2019

Tuesday, 19 March 2019


nda logo

 Instructions: Study the Map of SABAKA District and answer Questions 1 – 5

nda past questions on geography 2016

1. The inhabitants of Abu are most likely to be_____
A. traders
B. farmers
C. cattle herders
D. miners

2. The distribution of settlements in the areas is mostly influenced by_____
A. drainage
B. vegetation
C. relief
D. mineral deposits

3 The spot height on the map is
A. 320m
B. 360m
C. 400m
D. 440m

4. The map area can be described as a_____
A. low plain
B. rugged relief
C. flood pain
D. Plateau

5. The feature shown North of Abu is_____
A. a spur
B. a col
C. a ridge
D. an escarpment

6. Which type of energy uses magma or hot dry rocks to generate electricity?
A. geothermal
B. hydroelectric
C. nuclear
D. solar

7. Which is an inexhaustible resource?
A. coal
B. nuclear
C. oil
D. solar

8. Which helps to reduce the demand for new mineral resources?
A. generating
B. recycling
C. mining
D. refining

9. Which type of map shows elevation at earth's surface?
A. mercator
B. robinson
C. conic
D. topographic

10. The projection that shows accurate continent and accurate land areas is
A. conic
B. Robinson
C. topographic
D. Mercator

11. Land satellite collect data by using_____
A. sonar
B. sound waves
C. echolocation
D. light waves

12.  Physical factors affecting the distribution of vegetation include the following except_____
A. human beings
B. water
C. daylight
D. soil nutrient

13. Lines on maps joining together places with the same sunshine amount are called_____
A. Isobars
B. Isohels
C. Isotherms
D. Isodapanes

14. Two examples of inland drainage lakes in Africa are_____
A. Lake Chad and Lake Edwards
B. Lake Victoria and Lake Ngami
C. Lake Chad and Lake Turkana
D. Lake Malawi and Lake Turkana

15. The highest land in Nigeria is found on the_____
A. Mambilla Plateau
B. Oban Hills
C. North Central Plateau
D. Western Highlands

16. A range of temperature of a given station is?
A. the total temperature for the station
B. the difference between the maximum and the minimum temperature for the station
C. maximum temperature for the station
D. None of the above

17. Which consists of fine-grained wind sediment?
A. Moraine
B. Till
C. Loess
D. Rockfall

18. What is a layer of permeable rock that water flows through?
A. cave
B. water table
C. a pore
D. hot spring

19. What is the network formed by a river and all the smaller streams that contribute to it?
A. groundwater system
B. zone of saturation
C. river system
D. water table

20. In which area of the ocean is the greatest source of food build?
A. on the abyssal plain
B. along continental shelves
C. along the mid-ocean ridge
D. in trenches

21. A period of 24 hours of rain with an amount not below 0.2mm is called_____
A. A rainy day
B. A rain time
C. A rain belt
D. None of the above

22. Which of the following statistical mapping techniques is most suitable for Showing the spatial distribution of cattle in the different states of Northern Nigeria?
A. isopleths
B. pie chart
C. dot map
D. proportional circles

23. The growth of population at a rate faster than the available resources may result in_____
A. underpopulation
B. ageing population
C. overpopulation
D. optimum population

24. The busiest and the most important route that links two of the most populous and heavily industrialized parts of the world is the_____
A. Cape route
B. North Atlantic route
C. Panama canal route
D. Trans-pacific route

25. The following are lakes formed by deposition except
A. lakes due to landslides
B. lakes forming ox-bow lakes
C. lakes forming lagoons
D. karst lakes

26. Which of the following rivers is not a tributary of the Amazon'?
A. Madeira
B. Tapajos
C. Negro
D. Salvado

27. Which of the following countries produces all of copper, petroleum, iron ore and diamonds?
A. Egypt
B. Zimbabwe
C. Angola
D. Tanzania

28. Which one of the following areas arc associated with active volcanoes?
A. glaciated uplands
B. plateau surfaces
C. newly folded mountains
D. continental plains

29. Among West African countries, Togo is a leading exporter of_____
A. coffee
B. sugar
C. limestone
D. phosphates

30. Seismic waves from earthquakes arc measured with an instrument known as a_____
A. seismonology
B. seismothern
C. seismograph
D. seismonom

31. What hypothesis states that continents slowly moved to their present positions on earth?
A. seafloor spreading
B. subduction
C. sub erosion
D. continental drift

32. In which galaxy does the sun exist?
A. Aril's galaxy
B. Milky way galaxy
C. Bernard's galaxy
D. Andromeda galaxy

33 Which of the following gives the best description of Lagos?
I. cosmopolitan city
II. cultural city
III industrial city
IV. mining town

A. I and IV only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. II and IV only

34. Nature reserves in Africa are managed and utilized for several activities with the exception of_____
A. afforestation
B. agro-forestry
C. ranching
D. tourism

35. A rift valley can develop as a result of_____
A. heavy rainfall and earthquake
B. volcanic intrusion and avalanche
C. parallel faults and tensional forces
D. landslide and slump

36. In which of the following countries is land reclaimed from the sea intensively used for cultivation?
A. Belgium
B. England
C. Finland
D. Rolland

37. The leading wheat-producing region of the world is the_____
A. Pampas of Argentina
B. Prairie of North America
C. Downs of Australia
D. Veldt of South Africa

38. A river loses energy and may deposit some of its load if_____
A. its bed and banks become smoother
B. its discharge increases
C. its gradient decreases
D. it becomes narrow and deep

39. Time as a factor of soil formation influences mainly soil_____
A. texture
B. organisms
C. nutrients
D. maturity

40. The difference in the readings on the dry and wet bulb thermometers is used to determine.
A. atmospheric pressure
B. range of temperature
C. evaporation
D. relative humidity

1.   B
2.   C
3.   D
4.   A
5.   C
6.   A
7.   D
8.   B
9.   D



nda past questions chemistry 2014
1. Which of the following molecules has two lone pairs of electrons and is SP3
A. NH3
B. C6H6
C. H2O
D. CO2

2. Calculate the concentration of OH- ion (in moles per dm3) present in a solution of PH 4.398
A. 4.0x 10-5
B. 2.5 x 10-10
C. 4.0x 10-9
D. 4.4 x 1014

3. Steam changes the colour of hydrous cobalt (II) chloride from____
A. blue to pink
B. white to blue
C. white to red
D. blue to white

4. The electronic configuration of excited carbon atom is
A. 1S2 2S2 2Px1 2Py1
B. 1S2 2S1 2Px1 2Py1 2P21
C. 1S2 2S2 2P2
D. 1S2 2S1 2P4

5. The oxidation number of carbons is carbon disulphide (CS2) is the same as that of sulphur in
A. S
B. H2S
C. S8
D. H2SO4

6. For the reaction:
2H + Zn H2 + Zn2+
DG = -147KJ mol. What is the corresponding value of E0 cell?
A. 1.52 V
B. -0.76 V
C. 0.76 V
D. -1.52 V

7. Electrolysis is applied in the following process except
A. electroplating
B. extraction of aluminium
C. extraction of iron
D. purification of copper

8. Which of the following compounds would NOT give a precipitate with ammonia and AgNO3 solution?
A. C4C3 = CCH3
B. HC = CH
C. CH3C = C4
D. CH3 CH C2 = CH

9. Which of the following substances causes the depletion of the ozone layer in the atmosphere?
A. Carbon (IV) oxide
B. Chlorofluorocarbon
C. Sulphur (V) oxide
D. hydrocarbons

10. The Hydronium ion is___
A. H+
B. HO-
C. H2+
D. H3O+

11. 10 cm3 of CO is mixed and sparked with 100 cm3 of air containing 21% oxygen, O2. If all the volume are measured at STP, the resulting gases would be_____
A. 90 cm3
B. 100 cm3
C. 105 cm3
D. 110 cm3

12. An element X has 127 neutrons and 82 electrons; its atomic number is_____
A. 209
B. 82
C. 105
D. 127

13. In which of the following processes is iron being oxidized?
I. Fe + H2SO4 FeSO4 + H2
II. FeSO4 + H2S FeS + H2SO4
III. 2FeCl2 + Cl2 2FeCl3
IV. 2FeCl3 + SnCl2 2FeCl2 + SnCl4
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 only

14. Crude petroleum pollutant usually seen on some Nigerian creeks and waterways can be dispersed and removed by
A. Heating the affected parts in order to boil off the petroleum
B. Pouring organic solvents to dissolve the petroleum
C. Cooling to freeze out the petroleum
D. Spraying water with detergents

15. The first metal used by man was____
A. Iron
B. Bronze
C. Gold
D. Copper

16. Which kind of bonding can be found in a sample of H2O(l)?
A. Hydrogen bond only
B. non-polar covalent bonds only
C. ionic and non-polar hydrogen bonds
D. Both polar covalent and hydrogen bonds

17. The electronic configuration of an element X is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4. It can be deduced that X____
A. belongs to Group VI of Periodic Table
B. belongs to Period IV of the Periodic Table
C. has 3 unpaired electrons in its atom
D. has a relative molecular mass of lb

18. The order in which a mixture of sand, ammonium chloride and sodium chloride can be separated is____
A. Sublimation dissolution filtration evaporation
B. dissolution dryness filtration —, evaporation
C. Filtration sublimation evaporation dryness
D. dissolution filtration sublimation evaporation

19. Smoke consists of____
A. solid particles dispersed in liquid
B. solid or liquid particles dispersed in gas
C. gas or liquid particles dispersed in liquid
D. liquid particles dispersed in liquid

20. CO(g) + ½ O2(g) CO2(g), DH = -285kLmol-1
What is the energy change in kJmol-1 for the reaction given above?
[DH(CO) = -110.4kJmol-1; DH(CO2) = 393kJmol-1]
A. +503.4 kJmol-1
B. -503.4 kJmol-1
C. +393.0 kJmol-1
D. -282.6 kJmol-1


What is the reaction given above?
A. α- decay
B. β- decay
C. γ- decay
D. None of the above

22. The electronic configuration of Mg2+ ion is____
A. 1s2 2s2 2p5
B. 1s2 2s2 2p6
C. 1s2 2s2 2p4
D. 1s2 2s2 2p3

23. Natural Silicon in silicon-containing ores contains 92% Silicon-28, 5% Silicon-29 and 3% Silicon-30. What is the relative atomic mass of Silicon?
A. 28.11
B. 28.53
C. 28.92
D. 28.3

24. X has an empirical formula C2H2 and relative molecular mass 58. X is___
A. Ethane
B. Propane
C. Butane
D. Hexane

25. The following are methods of preparing bases except
A. Burning metal in air
B. Decomposition of carbonates or hydroxides by heating
C. Dissolving the basic oxide in water
D. Action of water or steam on non-metals

26. The alkenes form a homologous series of saturated hydrocarbons. They have a general molecular formula of___
A. CnH2n
B. CnH2n+1
C. CnH2n+2
D. CnH3n+2

27. Which of the following contain carbon that is SP hybridized?
A. Propene
B. Propane
C. Propyne
D. Propanol

28. The noble gases (Group 0) of the Periodic Table have filled
A. S — subshells
B. S and P — subshells
C. P and d subshells
D. S, P, d, f subshells

29. The heat change associated with a given chemical change is always constant and is independent with time and of any intermediate changes involved. This is
A. Dalton's Law of Heat Summation
B. Hess's Law of Heat Summation
C. Dulon & Petil Law of Heat Summation
D. Born-Haber Law of Heat Summation

30. In carbon atom, the wave functions for the respective electrons can be represented thus
A. 1 (S + Px + Py + Pz)
B. 1 (S + Px - Py - Pz)
C. S (Px - Py + Py - Pz)
D. 1 (S - Px - Py + Pz)

31. The formula CH2O for ethanoic acid is regarded as its____
A. empirical formula
B. molecular formula
C. structural formula
D. general formula

32. Which of the following gases contains the least number of atom at s.t.p?
A. 7 moles of argon
B. 4 moles of chlorine
C. 3 moles of ozone
D. 1 mole of butane

33. Which of the following substances is not a homogenous mixture?
A. Filtered seawater
B. Soft drink
C. Flood water
D. Writing ink

34. Which of the following gases dissolves in water vapour to produce acid rain during rainfall?
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon (II) oxide
C. Nitrogen
D. Sulphur (IV) oxide

35. A sample of Orange juice is found to have a pH of 3.80. What is the concentration of the hydroxide ion in the juice?
A. 1.6 × 10-4
B. 6.3 × 10-11
C. 6.3 × 10-4
D. 1.6 × 10-11

36. Despite of the electronic configuration 1s22s2p2, carbon is tetravalent because
A. the electrons in both 2s and 2p orbitals have equal energy
B. the electrons in both 2s and 2p orbitals are equivalent
C. both the 2s and 2p orbitals have equal energy
D. the six orbitals hybridize to four

37. Which of the following compounds will give a precipitate with an aqueous ammoniacal solution of copper (I) chloride?
B. CH3 C = C CH3
C. C HC = C — CH2CH3
D. CH2 = CH — CH = CH2

38. The efficiency of petrol as a fuel in high-compression combustion engines improves with an increase in the amount of ____
A. branched chain alkanes
B. straight chain alkanes
C. cycloalkanes
D. halogenated hydrocarbons

39. A palm wine seller stocked a bottle of his palm wine in his stall and after a few hours, the bottle exploded. Which of the following equation represents the enzyme's reaction that occurred?
A. C6H12O 2C2H5OH + 2CO + 2CO2(g)
B. C2H5OH CH2 = CH2(s) + H2O
C. C2H5OH + dil H2SO C2H5O SO2OH
D. 2C6H12O6 C12H2O13 + H2O solid with a

40. Ethanol reacts with aqueous sodium mono oxoiodide(I) to give a bright yellow solid with a characteristics smell; the product is
A.  trichloromethane
B. triiodomethane
C. iodoethane
D. ethanol

1.   C
2.   B
3.   A
4.   B
5.   C
6.   C
7.   C
8.   A
9.   B


Monday, 18 March 2019


nda past questions on mathematics 2013

1. Find the product (2x2y-2z7)(3x2y4z-7)
A.  x5y2z5
B.  6x5y2z5
C.  6x5yz5
D.  6x4z5

2. Show the product (a + bc) (a-bc)
A.  b2c
B.  a2-b2c
C.  a - b2 c2
D.  a2 - bc

3.   If p(x) = 7x3 – 12x2 +x/4 -1
      and q(x) =-3x4 +x3 +6x2 -x + 8
      Find (p + x)
A. 3x4
B. -3x4 -6x2 -3x/4 +7
C. -3x4 +8x2 _6x2 -7
D. -3x4 +8x3 -6x2 -3x/4 +7

4. Evaluate (√2 + 1) - (√2 - 1)5 
A.  82
B.  -80
C.  100
D. (√2-1)

5. Solve the quadratic equation(x-1)2-(x-1)-3 =0
A. -1, 7
B. 1, 7
C. -1, -7
D. 1, -7

6. What is derivative of tan x?
A. cos x
B. sin x
C. sec2 x
D. cot2 x
nda past questions on mathematics 2013

7. In a circle O above, what is the value of a ___.
A. 20
B. 30
C. 50
D. 60
nda past questions on mathematics 2013

8. In the figure above Ll is parallel to L2 Ind L2 is parallel to L3. What is the value of a+b+C+d
A. 180
B. 270
C. 360
D. 450

9. A coin is tossed 3 times. What is the probability of having at least 1 head?
A.  3/8
B.   7/8
C.   4/5
D.   1/4

10.  Musa writes 8 paper and failed 3 papers. Jide wrote 6 papers and failed 2 papers. If one of them is called and then a paper is selected, what is the probability that the failed paper is selected?
A. 17/48
B. 15/48
C.  13/48
D.  11/48

11. In how many ways can 5 different people he arranged in a car which has live vacant seats?
A.  720
B.  120
C.  240
D.  360

12. The table shows marks obtained by 20 students in an examination
Scores (x)
Frequency (y)
If the average score for the students was 5.5, find the value of k. Correct to the nearest whole number
A.  7
B.  5
C.  4
D.  6

13. A student scored the following marks in an examination, Mathematics 62%, Physics 49%,
Engineering Drawing 72%. English 35% and General Studies 21%. If the credit grade attached to each of the courses are 4, 5, 4, 3, 1 respectively. determine the student average grade.
A.   54.30
B.   64.28
C.   58.51
D.   53.35

15. The sum of 10th terms of an AP is 30 and its 12th term is 36. Find the first term and the common
A. 3 and -3
B. 3 and 4
C. 3 and 3
D. -3 and 4

16. If T varies inversely proportional to P and directly to U. formulate the problem
A.   T=K/P+U
B.   T α 1/P
C.   T α U
D.   T = K/P + AU            (K and A ɸ are constant)

17. Find the equation of the tangent to the curve y =x3 at the point (2, 8)
A. 1x + y - 16 = 0
B. 12x - 2y + 16 .0
C. 12x - y-16 =0
D. 12x - y + 16=0

18. Find the centre of the circle x2+ y2 -10x + 4y = 7
A.    (-5, 2)
B.    (5, 2)
C.    (-5, 4)
D.    (-5. -2)

19.  At x= 1, the function
  f(x)       2(N-1), 0≤X≤1
               (x-1)(x+1), l<X  2 is __.
A. Continuous and differentiable
B. Continuous but not differentiable
C. not continuous but differentiable
D. neither continuous nor differentiable

 20.   If Sin y= x sin(a+y), then dy/dx  =
nda past questions on mathematics 2013
21.  Simplify nda past questions on mathematics 2013
A.  3
B.  2
C.  1          
D.  4

22. Convert 7896410 to base 2
A. 100110100011101002
B.  110101100011101002
C.  100010011011101002
D.  1l1100010100111012

23. The fourth order derivative of f(x) = e-xCos x is
A.  4e-xCos x
B. -4e-xCos x
C.   4e-xSin x                                                                                   
D.  -4e-xSin x 

24.  Which of the following is true about arty rhombus?
A. all the sided are equal
B. two diagonals cut at right angles
C. the angels are bisected
D. All of the above

25. Find the point of intersection of tile lines
+2y = 5 and 2x+ y =7
A. (2, 1)
B. (-2. 5), 27
C. (6, -3), 36
D.  (4, 3), 16

26. Sin x Cos y is same as
A. 1/2[Sin(x + y) + Sin(x-y)]
B.  1/2[Cos(x — y)+ Sin(x - y)]
C.  1/2[Sin(x — y)+Sin(x+y)]
D. 1/2[Sin(x — y)+Sin(x+y)]

nda past questions on mathematics 2013

28. Log (x2-y2) is equal to which of the following
A. 2log x-2log y
B. log (x+y) +(x-y)
C. 2log(x-y)
D. None of the above

nda past questions on mathematics 2013

30.  If -2 is the solution of the equation
2x + 1 -3c = 2c + 3x -71 find the value of c
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1

31. A hunter I.6rn tall, views a bird on top of a tree at an angle 45°. If the distance between the hunter
and the tree is 10.4m. find the height of the tree
A.    12.0m
B.    10.4m
C.    9.0m
D.    8.8m

32. The sum of the interior angles of a polygon is 20 right angles. How many Sides does the polygon
A.  40
B.  20
C.  10
D.  12

nda past questions on mathematics 2013
The triangle PQR above is ___.
A. an isosceles triangle
B. an obtuse-angles triangle
C. a scalene triangle
D. an equilateral triangle

34.  Find the Standard deviation of the numbers 1, 7, 6. 3, 4, 5, 2, 8, 9

A.   6
B.   √6
C.   7
D.   √7

35. Find the arithmetic mean of the following numbers:30, 32, 34, 36, 38,40, 42
A. 34
B. 38
C. 36
D. 37

36. The equation whose roots are 3 and -5 is __. 
A.  n2-2n + 15
B.  n2 + 2n + 15
C.  x2- 2x - 15
D.  x2 + 2n + 15

37.     Find the equation of the circle which passes through the origin and touches the straight line 4x - 3y = 5 at the point (2, 1)
A. X2+ y2-5y=0
B. X2+ y2+5xy-5y=0
C. X2+ y2+2xy+4y=0
D. X2+ y2-7x-9y+24=0

38. A farmer has 120m of fencing with which to enclose a rectangle sheep-pen, using a wall for one
side. Find the maximum area that he can enclose.
A. 1,800 m2 
B. 800m
C. 1,500 m2 
D. 1,020 m2 

39.  PQRS is a trapezium having PQ parallel to SR, and PSR =QRS = 73, Calculate PQR
A. 107
B. 97
C. 73
D. None

40. ABC is a triangle right-angled B and X is the mid-point of AC. What is the relationship between BX and AC?
A. BX = AC
B. BX = 1/4AC
C. BX =2AC
D. BX = ½AC


1. B
2. B
3. D
4. A
5. A
6. C
7. D
8. C
9. B
10. A
11. B
12. D
13. D
14. A
15. C
16. D
17. C
18. A
19. A
20. A
21. C
22. A
23. B
24. D
25. D
26. A
27. B
28. B
29. A
30. A
31. A
32. D
33. A
34. B
35. C
36. B
37. A
38. D
39. A
40. B