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Wednesday, 20 March 2019
JAMB PAST QUESTIONS FOR ALL YEAR( UP TO 2018)
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Tuesday, 19 March 2019
NDA PAST QUESTIONS ON GEOGRAPHY 2016
Instructions: Study the Map of SABAKA District and answer Questions 1 – 5
1. The inhabitants of Abu are most likely to be_____
A. traders
B. farmers
C. cattle herders
D. miners
2. The distribution of settlements in the areas is mostly influenced by_____
A. drainage
B. vegetation
C. relief
D. mineral deposits
3 The spot height on the map is
A. 320m
B. 360m
C. 400m
D. 440m
4. The map area can be described as a_____
A. low plain
B. rugged relief
C. flood pain
D. Plateau
5. The feature shown North of Abu is_____
A. a spur
B. a col
C. a ridge
D. an escarpment
6. Which type of energy uses magma or hot dry rocks to generate electricity?
A. geothermal
B. hydroelectric
C. nuclear
D. solar
7. Which is an inexhaustible resource?
A. coal
B. nuclear
C. oil
D. solar
8. Which helps to reduce the demand for new mineral resources?
A. generating
B. recycling
C. mining
D. refining
9. Which type of map shows elevation at earth's surface?
A. mercator
B. robinson
C. conic
D. topographic
10. The projection that shows accurate continent and accurate land areas is
A. conic
B. Robinson
C. topographic
D. Mercator
11. Land satellite collect data by using_____
A. sonar
B. sound waves
C. echolocation
D. light waves
12. Physical factors affecting the distribution of vegetation include the following except_____
A. human beings
B. water
C. daylight
D. soil nutrient
13. Lines on maps joining together places with the same sunshine amount are called_____
A. Isobars
B. Isohels
C. Isotherms
D. Isodapanes
14. Two examples of inland drainage lakes in Africa are_____
A. Lake Chad and Lake Edwards
B. Lake Victoria and Lake Ngami
C. Lake Chad and Lake Turkana
D. Lake Malawi and Lake Turkana
15. The highest land in Nigeria is found on the_____
A. Mambilla Plateau
B. Oban Hills
C. North Central Plateau
D. Western Highlands
16. A range of temperature of a given station is?
A. the total temperature for the station
B. the difference between the maximum and the minimum temperature for the station
C. maximum temperature for the station
D. None of the above
17. Which consists of finegrained wind sediment?
A. Moraine
B. Till
C. Loess
D. Rockfall
18. What is a layer of permeable rock that water flows through?
A. cave
B. water table
C. a pore
D. hot spring
19. What is the network formed by a river and all the smaller streams that contribute to it?
A. groundwater system
B. zone of saturation
C. river system
D. water table
20. In which area of the ocean is the greatest source of food build?
A. on the abyssal plain
B. along continental shelves
C. along the midocean ridge
D. in trenches
21. A period of 24 hours of rain with an amount not below 0.2mm is called_____
A. A rainy day
B. A rain time
C. A rain belt
D. None of the above
22. Which of the following statistical mapping techniques is most suitable for Showing the spatial distribution of cattle in the different states of Northern Nigeria?
A. isopleths
B. pie chart
C. dot map
D. proportional circles
23. The growth of population at a rate faster than the available resources may result in_____
A. underpopulation
B. ageing population
C. overpopulation
D. optimum population
24. The busiest and the most important route that links two of the most populous and heavily industrialized parts of the world is the_____
A. Cape route
B. North Atlantic route
C. Panama canal route
D. Transpacific route
25. The following are lakes formed by deposition except
A. lakes due to landslides
B. lakes forming oxbow lakes
C. lakes forming lagoons
D. karst lakes
26. Which of the following rivers is not a tributary of the Amazon'?
A. Madeira
B. Tapajos
C. Negro
D. Salvado
27. Which of the following countries produces all of copper, petroleum, iron ore and diamonds?
A. Egypt
B. Zimbabwe
C. Angola
D. Tanzania
28. Which one of the following areas arc associated with active volcanoes?
A. glaciated uplands
B. plateau surfaces
C. newly folded mountains
D. continental plains
29. Among West African countries, Togo is a leading exporter of_____
A. coffee
B. sugar
C. limestone
D. phosphates
30. Seismic waves from earthquakes arc measured with an instrument known as a_____
A. seismonology
B. seismothern
C. seismograph
D. seismonom
31. What hypothesis states that continents slowly moved to their present positions on earth?
A. seafloor spreading
B. subduction
C. sub erosion
D. continental drift
32. In which galaxy does the sun exist?
A. Aril's galaxy
B. Milky way galaxy
C. Bernard's galaxy
D. Andromeda galaxy
33 Which of the following gives the best description of Lagos?
I. cosmopolitan city
II. cultural city
III industrial city
IV. mining town
A. I and IV only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. II and IV only
34. Nature reserves in Africa are managed and utilized for several activities with the exception of_____
A. afforestation
B. agroforestry
C. ranching
D. tourism
35. A rift valley can develop as a result of_____
A. heavy rainfall and earthquake
B. volcanic intrusion and avalanche
C. parallel faults and tensional forces
D. landslide and slump
36. In which of the following countries is land reclaimed from the sea intensively used for cultivation?
A. Belgium
B. England
C. Finland
D. Rolland
37. The leading wheatproducing region of the world is the_____
A. Pampas of Argentina
B. Prairie of North America
C. Downs of Australia
D. Veldt of South Africa
38. A river loses energy and may deposit some of its load if_____
A. its bed and banks become smoother
B. its discharge increases
C. its gradient decreases
D. it becomes narrow and deep
39. Time as a factor of soil formation influences mainly soil_____
A. texture
B. organisms
C. nutrients
D. maturity
40. The difference in the readings on the dry and wet bulb thermometers is used to determine.
A. atmospheric pressure
B. range of temperature
C. evaporation
D. relative humidity
ANSWERS:
1. B
2. C
3. D
4. A
5. C
6. A
7. D
8. B
9. D
10.D
11.D
12.A
13.B
14.A
15.A
16.B
17.C
18.C
19.C
20.B
21.A
22.C
23.C
24.B
25.D
26.D
27.B
28.D
29.C
30.C
31.D
32.B
33.A
34.C
35.C
36.A
37.B
38.C
39.D
40.D
NDA PAST QUESTIONS ON CHEMISTRY 2014
1. Which of the following molecules has two lone pairs of electrons and is SP3
A. NH_{3}
B. C_{6}H_{6}
C. H_{2}O
D. CO2
2. Calculate the concentration of OH^{ }ion (in moles per dm^{3}) present in a solution of PH 4.398
A. 4.0x 10^{5}
B. 2.5 x 10^{10}
C. 4.0x 10^{9}
D. 4.4 x 10^{14}
3. Steam changes the colour of hydrous cobalt (II) chloride from____
A. blue to pink
B. white to blue
C. white to red
D. blue to white
4. The electronic configuration of excited carbon atom is
A. 1S^{2} 2S^{2} 2P_{x}^{1} 2P_{y}^{1}
B. 1S^{2} 2S^{1} 2P_{x}^{1} 2P_{y}^{1 }2P_{2}^{1}
C. 1S^{2} 2S^{2} 2P^{2}
D. 1S^{2} 2S^{1} 2P^{4}
5. The oxidation number of carbons is carbon disulphide (CS_{2}) is the same as that of sulphur in
A. S
B. H_{2}S
C. S8
D. H_{2}SO_{4}
6. For the reaction:
2H + Zn ⟶ H_{2} + Zn^{2+}
DG = 147KJ mol. What is the corresponding value of E_{0} cell?
A. 1.52 V
B. 0.76 V
C. 0.76 V
D. 1.52 V
7. Electrolysis is applied in the following process except
A. electroplating
B. extraction of aluminium
C. extraction of iron
D. purification of copper
8. Which of the following compounds would NOT give a precipitate with ammonia and AgNO_{3} solution?
A. C_{4}C_{3} = CCH_{3}
B. HC = CH
C. CH_{3}C = C_{4}
D. CH_{3} CH C_{2} = CH
9. Which of the following substances causes the depletion of the ozone layer in the atmosphere?
A. Carbon (IV) oxide
B. Chlorofluorocarbon
C. Sulphur (V) oxide
D. hydrocarbons
10. The Hydronium ion is___
A. H^{+}
B. HO^{}
C. H^{2+}
D. H_{3}O^{+}
11. 10 cm^{3} of CO is mixed and sparked with 100 cm^{3} of air containing 21% oxygen, O_{2}. If all the volume are measured at STP, the resulting gases would be_____
A. 90 cm^{3}
B. 100 cm^{3}
C. 105 cm^{3}
D. 110 cm^{3}
12. An element X has 127 neutrons and 82 electrons; its atomic number is_____
A. 209
B. 82
C. 105
D. 127
13. In which of the following processes is iron being oxidized?
I. Fe + H_{2}SO_{4 }⟶ FeSO_{4} + H_{2}
II. FeSO_{4} + H_{2}S ⟶ FeS + H_{2}SO_{4}
III. 2FeCl_{2} + Cl_{2} ⟶ 2FeCl_{3}
IV. 2FeCl_{3} + SnCl_{2} ⟶ 2FeCl_{2} + SnCl_{4}
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 only
14. Crude petroleum pollutant usually seen on some Nigerian creeks and waterways can be dispersed and removed by
A. Heating the affected parts in order to boil off the petroleum
B. Pouring organic solvents to dissolve the petroleum
C. Cooling to freeze out the petroleum
D. Spraying water with detergents
15. The first metal used by man was____
A. Iron
B. Bronze
C. Gold
D. Copper
16. Which kind of bonding can be found in a sample of H_{2}O_{(l)}?
A. Hydrogen bond only
B. nonpolar covalent bonds only
C. ionic and nonpolar hydrogen bonds
D. Both polar covalent and hydrogen bonds
17. The electronic configuration of an element X is 1s_{2} 2s^{2} 2p^{6} 3s^{2} 3p^{4}. It can be deduced that X____
A. belongs to Group VI of Periodic Table
B. belongs to Period IV of the Periodic Table
C. has 3 unpaired electrons in its atom
D. has a relative molecular mass of lb
18. The order in which a mixture of sand, ammonium chloride and sodium chloride can be separated is____
A. Sublimation ⟶ dissolution ⟶ filtration ⟶ evaporation
B. dissolution ⟶ dryness ⟶ filtration —, evaporation
C. Filtration ⟶ sublimation ⟶ evaporation ⟶ dryness
D. dissolution ⟶ filtration ⟶ sublimation ⟶ evaporation
19. Smoke consists of____
A. solid particles dispersed in liquid
B. solid or liquid particles dispersed in gas
C. gas or liquid particles dispersed in liquid
D. liquid particles dispersed in liquid
20. CO_{(g)} + ½ O_{2(g)} ⟶ CO_{2(g)}, DH = 285kLmol^{1}
What is the energy change in kJmol^{1} for the reaction given above?
[DH_{(CO) }= 110.4kJmol^{1}; DH(CO_{2}) = 393kJmol^{1}]
A. +503.4 kJmol^{1}
B. 503.4 kJmol^{1}
C. +393.0 kJmol^{1}
D. 282.6 kJmol^{1}
21.
What is the reaction given above?
A. α decay
B. β decay
C. γ decay
D. None of the above
22. The electronic configuration of Mg^{2+} ion is____
A. 1s^{2} 2s^{2} 2p^{5}
B. 1s^{2} 2s^{2} 2p^{6}
C. 1s^{2} 2s^{2} 2p^{4}
D. 1s^{2} 2s^{2} 2p^{3}
23. Natural Silicon in siliconcontaining ores contains 92% Silicon28, 5% Silicon29 and 3% Silicon30. What is the relative atomic mass of Silicon?
A. 28.11
B. 28.53
C. 28.92
D. 28.3
24. X has an empirical formula C_{2}H_{2} and relative molecular mass 58. X is___
A. Ethane
B. Propane
C. Butane
D. Hexane
25. The following are methods of preparing bases except
A. Burning metal in air
B. Decomposition of carbonates or hydroxides by heating
C. Dissolving the basic oxide in water
D. Action of water or steam on nonmetals
26. The alkenes form a homologous series of saturated hydrocarbons. They have a general molecular formula of___
A. CnH_{2n}
B. CnH_{2n+1}
C. CnH_{2n+2}
D. CnH_{3n+2}
27. Which of the following contain carbon that is SP hybridized?
A. Propene
B. Propane
C. Propyne
D. Propanol
28. The noble gases (Group 0) of the Periodic Table have filled
A. S — subshells
B. S and P — subshells
C. P and d subshells
D. S, P, d, f subshells
29. The heat change associated with a given chemical change is always constant and is independent with time and of any intermediate changes involved. This is
A. Dalton's Law of Heat Summation
B. Hess's Law of Heat Summation
C. Dulon & Petil Law of Heat Summation
D. BornHaber Law of Heat Summation
30. In carbon atom, the wave functions for the respective electrons can be represented thus
A. 1 (S + P_{x} + P_{y} + P_{z})
B. 1 (S + P_{x}  P_{y}  P_{z})
C. S (P_{x}  P_{y} + P_{y}  P_{z})
D. 1 (S  P_{x}  P_{y} + P_{z})
31. The formula CH_{2}O for ethanoic acid is regarded as its____
A. empirical formula
B. molecular formula
C. structural formula
D. general formula
32. Which of the following gases contains the least number of atom at s.t.p?
A. 7 moles of argon
B. 4 moles of chlorine
C. 3 moles of ozone
D. 1 mole of butane
33. Which of the following substances is not a homogenous mixture?
A. Filtered seawater
B. Soft drink
C. Flood water
D. Writing ink
34. Which of the following gases dissolves in water vapour to produce acid rain during rainfall?
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon (II) oxide
C. Nitrogen
D. Sulphur (IV) oxide
35. A sample of Orange juice is found to have a pH of 3.80. What is the concentration of the hydroxide ion in the juice?
A. 1.6 × 10^{4}
B. 6.3 × 10^{11}
C. 6.3 × 10^{4}
D. 1.6 × 10^{11}
36. Despite of the electronic configuration 1s^{2}2s^{2}p^{2}, carbon is tetravalent because
A. the electrons in both 2s and 2p orbitals have equal energy
B. the electrons in both 2s and 2p orbitals are equivalent
C. both the 2s and 2p orbitals have equal energy
D. the six orbitals hybridize to four
37. Which of the following compounds will give a precipitate with an aqueous ammoniacal solution of copper (I) chloride?
A. CH_{3}CH = CHCH_{3}
B. CH_{3} C = C CH_{3}
C. C HC = C — CH_{2}CH_{3}
D. CH_{2} = CH — CH = CH_{2}
38. The efficiency of petrol as a fuel in highcompression combustion engines improves with an increase in the amount of ____
A. branched chain alkanes
B. straight chain alkanes
C. cycloalkanes
D. halogenated hydrocarbons
39. A palm wine seller stocked a bottle of his palm wine in his stall and after a few hours, the bottle exploded. Which of the following equation represents the enzyme's reaction that occurred?
A. C_{6}H_{12}O ⟶ 2C_{2}H_{5}OH + 2CO + 2CO_{2(g)}
B. C_{2}H_{5}OH ⟶ CH_{2} = CH_{2(s)} + H_{2}O
C. C_{2}H_{5}OH + dil H_{2}SO_{ }⟶ C_{2}H_{5}O SO_{2}OH
D. 2C_{6}H_{12}O_{6} ⟶ C_{12}H_{2}O_{13} + H_{2}O solid with a
40. Ethanol reacts with aqueous sodium mono oxoiodide(I) to give a bright yellow solid with a characteristics smell; the product is
A. trichloromethane
B. triiodomethane
C. iodoethane
D. ethanol
ANSWERS:
1. C
2. B
3. A
4. B
5. C
6. C
7. C
8. A
9. B
10.D
11.A
12.B
13.A
14.B
15.D
16.D
17.A
18.A
19.B
20.D
21.A
22.B
23.A
24.C
25.D
26.A
27.C
28.D
29.B
30.A
31.C
32.A
33.C
34.D
35.B
36.C
37.C
38.A
39.A
40.B
Monday, 18 March 2019
NDA PAST QUESTIONS ON MATHEMATICS 2013
A. x^{5}y^{2}z^{5}
B. 6x^{5}y^{2}z^{5}
C. 6x^{5}yz^{5}
D. 6x^{4}z^{5}
^{}
2. Show the product (a + b√c) (ab√c)
A. b^{2}c
B. a^{2}b^{2}c
C. a  b^{2} c^{2}
D. a^{2}  bc
3. If p(x) = 7x^{3} – 12x^{2} +x/4 1
and q(x) =3x^{4} +x^{3} +6x^{2} x + 8
Find (p + x)
A. 3x^{4}
B. 3x^{4} 6x^{2} 3x/4 +7
C. 3x^{4} +8x^{2} _6x^{2} 7
D. 3x^{4} +8x^{3} 6x^{2} 3x/4 +7
4. Evaluate (√2 + 1)  (√2  1)^{5}
A. 82
B. 80
C. 100
D. (√21)
5. Solve the quadratic equation(x1)2(x1)3 =0
A. 1, 7
B. 1, 7
C. 1, 7
D. 1, 7
6. What is derivative of tan x?
A. cos x
B. sin x
C. sec^{2} x
D. cot^{2} x
7. In a circle O above, what is the value of a ___.
A. 20
B. 30
C. 50
D. 60
8. In the figure above Ll is parallel to L2 Ind L2 is parallel to L3. What is the value of a+b+C+d
A. 180
B. 270
C. 360
D. 450
9. A coin is tossed 3 times. What is the probability of having at least 1 head?
A. ^{3}/_{8}
_{}
B. ^{7}/_{8}
_{}
C. ^{4}/_{5}
_{}
D. ^{1}/_{4}
_{}
10. Musa writes 8 paper and failed 3 papers. Jide wrote 6 papers and failed 2 papers. If one of them is called and then a paper is selected, what is the probability that the failed paper is selected?
A. ^{17}/_{48}
B. ^{15}/_{48}
C. ^{13}/_{48}
D. ^{11}/_{48}
11. In how many ways can 5 different people he arranged in a car which has live vacant seats?
A. 720
B. 120
C. 240
D. 360
12. The table shows marks obtained by 20 students in an examination
Scores (x)

1

2

3

4

5

Frequency (y)

2

4

K

8

10

If the average score for the students was 5.5, find the value of k. Correct to the nearest whole number
A. 7
B. 5
C. 4
D. 6
13. A student scored the following marks in an examination, Mathematics 62%, Physics 49%,
Engineering Drawing 72%. English 35% and General Studies 21%. If the credit grade attached to each of the courses are 4, 5, 4, 3, 1 respectively. determine the student average grade.
A. 54.30
B. 64.28
C. 58.51
D. 53.35
15. The sum of 10th terms of an AP is 30 and its 12th term is 36. Find the first term and the common
difference
A. 3 and 3
B. 3 and 4
C. 3 and 3
D. 3 and 4
16. If T varies inversely proportional to P and directly to U. formulate the problem
A. T=K/P+U
B. T α 1/P
C. T α U
D. T = K/P + AU (K and A ɸ are constant)
17. Find the equation of the tangent to the curve y =x^{3} at the point (2, 8)
A. 1x + y  16 = 0
B. 12x  2y + 16 .0
C. 12x  y16 =0
D. 12x  y + 16=0
18. Find the centre of the circle x^{2}+ y^{2} 10x + 4y = 7
A. (5, 2)
B. (5, 2)
C. (5, 4)
D. (5. 2)
19. At x= 1, the function
f(x) 2(N1), 0≤X≤1
(x1)(x+1), l<X ≤ 2 is __.
A. Continuous and differentiable
B. Continuous but not differentiable
C. not continuous but differentiable
D. neither continuous nor differentiable
20. If Sin y= x sin(a+y), then ^{dy}/_{dx }=
A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
D. 4
22. Convert 78964_{10 }to base 2
A. 10011010001110100_{2}
B. 11010110001110100_{2}
C. 10001001101110100_{2}
D. 1l110001010011101_{2}
23. The fourth order derivative of f(x) = e^{x}Cos x is
A. 4e^{x}Cos x
B. 4e^{x}Cos x
C. 4e^{x}Sin x
D. 4e^{x}Sin x
24. Which of the following is true about arty rhombus?
A. all the sided are equal
B. two diagonals cut at right angles
C. the angels are bisected
D. All of the above
25. Find the point of intersection of tile lines
+2y = 5 and 2x+ y =7
A. (2, 1)
B. (2. 5), 27
C. (6, 3), 36
D. (4, 3), 16
26. Sin x Cos y is same as
A. ^{1}/_{2}[Sin(x + y) + Sin(xy)]
B. ^{1}/_{2}[Cos(x — y)+ Sin(x  y)]
C. ^{1}/_{2}[Sin(x — y)+Sin(x+y)]
D. ^{1}/_{2}[Sin(x — y)+Sin(x+y)]
28. Log (x^{2}y^{2}) is equal to which of the following
A. 2log x2log y
B. log (x+y) +(xy)
C. 2log(xy)
D. None of the above
29.
30. If 2 is the solution of the equation
2x + 1 3c = 2c + 3x 71 find the value of c
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1
31. A hunter I.6rn tall, views a bird on top of a tree at an angle 45°. If the distance between the hunter
and the tree is 10.4m. find the height of the tree
A. 12.0m
B. 10.4m
C. 9.0m
D. 8.8m
32. The sum of the interior angles of a polygon is 20 right angles. How many Sides does the polygon
have?
A. 40
B. 20
C. 10
D. 12
C. a scalene triangle
D. an equilateral triangle
34. Find the Standard deviation of the numbers 1, 7, 6. 3, 4, 5, 2, 8, 9
A. 6
B. √6
C. 7
D. √7
35. Find the arithmetic mean of the following numbers:30, 32, 34, 36, 38,40, 42
A. 34
B. 38
C. 36
D. 37
36. The equation whose roots are 3 and 5 is __.
A. n^{2}2n + 15
B. n^{2} + 2n + 15
C. x^{2} 2x  15
D. x^{2} + 2n + 15
37. Find the equation of the circle which passes through the origin and touches the straight line 4x  3y = 5 at the point (2, 1)
A. X^{2}+ y^{2}5y=0
B. X^{2}+ y^{2}+5xy5y=0
C. X^{2}+ y^{2}+2xy+4y=0
D. X^{2}+ y^{2}7x9y+24=0
38. A farmer has 120m of fencing with which to enclose a rectangle sheeppen, using a wall for one
side. Find the maximum area that he can enclose.
A. 1,800 m^{2}
B. 800m
C. 1,500 m^{2}
D. 1,020 m^{2}
39. PQRS is a trapezium having PQ parallel to SR, and PSR =QRS = 73, Calculate PQR
A. 107
B. 97
C. 73
D. None
40. ABC is a triangle rightangled B and X is the midpoint of AC. What is the relationship between BX and AC?
A. BX = AC
B. BX = ^{1}/_{4}AC
C. BX =2AC
D. BX = ½AC
ANSWERS
1. B
2. B
3. D
4. A
5. A
6. C
7. D
8. C
9. B
10. A
11. B
12. D
13. D
14. A
15. C
16. D
17. C
18. A
19. A
20. A
21. C
22. A
23. B
24. D
25. D
26. A
27. B
28. B
29. A
30. A
31. A
32. D
33. A
34. B
35. C
36. B
37. A
38. D
39. A
40. B
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