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Friday, 22 February 2019

JAMB/UTME 2010 PHYSICS QUESTIONS (TEXT)


PAPER TYPE: B

1. Which Physics Question Paper Type is given to you?
A. Type A            
B. Type B
C. Type C          
D. Type D

2. Two cars moving in the same direction have speeds of 100kmh-1 and 130kmh-1. What is the velocity of the faster car as measured by an observer in the slower car?
A. 130kmh-1
B. 230kmh-1
C. 200kmh-1      
D.  30kmh-1 

3. The diagram above shows a velocity-time graph. The statement that is true about this motion is that, the car __. 
A. decelerates between points F and H
B. accelerates between points F and G
C. has a constant speed between points E and F
D. has no acceleration between point F and G

4. A stone and a feather dropped from the same height above the earth surface. Ignoring air resistance, which of the following is correct?
A. The stone and feather will both reach the ground at the same time
B. The stone will reach the ground first
C. The feather will reach the ground first
D. The feather will be blown away by the wind while stone will drop steadily

5. A car moves with an initial velocity of 25ms-1 and reaches a velocity of 45ms-1 in 10s. What is the acceleration of the car?
A. 5ms-2              
B.  25ms-2
C.  20ms-2            
D. 2ms-2

6. An object is weighed at different locations on the earth. What will be the right observation?
A. Both the mass and weight vary
B. The weight is constant while the mass varies
C. The mass is constant while the weight varies
D. Both the mass and weight are constant


7. The diagram above represents balls in an undulating surface. Which of the following options represents positions of stale equilibrium?
A. II, V and VIII
B. I, IV and VII
C. III, VI and IX
D. III, IV and VII

8. A bob of weight 0.1N hangs from a massless string of length 50cm. A variable horizontal force which increases from zero is applied to pull the bob until the string makes an angle of 600 with the vertical. The work done is __.
A. 0.250 J          
B. 0.025 J
C. 0.050 J          
D. 0.500 J
9. The surfaces of conveyor belts are made rough so as to ___.
A. prevent the load from slipping
B. make them stronger
C. enable them to carry more load
D. protect them while carrying load

10. A machine of velocity ratio 6 requires an effort of 400N to raise a load of 800N through 1 m. Find the efficiency of the machine.
A. 50%               
B. 22.2%
C. 33.3%            
D. 55.6%

11. If a wire 30cm long is extended to 30.5cm by a force of 300 N. Find the strain energy of the wire.
A. 7.50 J              
B. 750.00 J
C. 75.00 J            
D. 0.75 J

12. In a hydraulic press, the pump piston exerts a pressure of 100 Pa on the liquid. What force is exerted in the second piston of cross-sectional area 3m2?
A. 200 N              
B. 100 N
C. 150 N
D. 300 N

13. The accurate measurement of the relative density of a substance in its powered form is done with a beam balance and __.
A. an eureka can
B. a burette
C. a pipette     
D. a density bottle

14. A hydrometer is an instrument used in measuring __.
A. density of liquid
B. relative density of a liquid
C. relative humidity of a liquid
D. vapour pressure of a fluid

15. One special advantage of alcohol water over mercury as a thermometric liquid is its __.
A. low freezing point
B. low boiling point
C. high specific heat capacity
D. low density

16. Two metals P and Q of lengths l1 and l2 are heated through the same temperature difference. If the ratio of the linear expansivities of P to Q is 2 : 3 and the ratio of their lengths is 3 : 4. What is the ratio of increase in lengths of P to Q?
A.  5 : 7
B.  2 : 1
C   1 : 2 
D.  7 : 5

17. The density of a certain oil on frying becomes 0.4kgm-3 with a volume of 20m-3. What will be its initial volume when its initial density is 0.8kgm-3 assuming no loss of oil due to spillage?
A.10 kgm-3        
B. 5 kgm-3
C. 8 kgm-3         
D. 12 kgm-3

18. Heat is radiated by all hot objects in the form of __.
A.  light energy
B.  solar energy
C.  infrared ray
D.  x-rays

19. If a container is filled with ice to the brim, what happens to the level of water when the ice completely melts?
A. The water in the glass outflows
B. The level of water drops
C. The level of water remains unchanged
D. The level of water goes up

20. The small droplet of water that forms on the grass in the early hours of the morning is __.
A. dew 
B. mist 
C. fog   
D. hail

21. A vapour is said to be saturated when __.
A. a dynamic equilibrium exists such that more molecules return to the liquid than are leaving it.
B. the vapour pressure is atmospheric
C. the temperature of the vapour varies
D. a dynamic equilibrium exists between liquid molecules and the vapour molecules

22. The pressure of one mole of an ideal gas of volume 10-2m3 at a temperature of 270C is
A. 2.24 x 104 Nm-2
B. 2.24 x 105 Nm-1
C. 2.49 x 105 Nm-1
D. 2.49 x 104 Nm-1
[Molar gas constant = 8.3 Jmol-1K-1]

23. Which of the following has no effect on radiation?
A. density
B. temperature
C. surface area
D. nature of the surface

24. The wavelength of a wave travelling with a velocity of 420ms-1 is 42 m. What is its period?
A. 1.0s
B. 0.1s
C. 0.5s
D. 1.2s

25. The sound of an electric bell dies down slowly when air is slowly pumped out from a bottle because ___.
A. sound cannot pass through the bottle
B. sound can pass through a vacuum
C. sound needs a material medium
D. the wavelength of sound becomes greater in the bottle

26. During a thunderstorm, the sound is heard over a long time. This phenomenon is referred to as __.
A. refraction of sound
B. reverberation
C. superposition
D. diffraction of sound

27. The velocity of sound in air at 160C is 340 ms-1. What will it be when the pressure is doubled and its temperature raised to 1270C?
A. 4,000ms-1    
B. 160,000 ms-1
C. 8,000 ms-1   
D. 400 ms-1

28. In comparing the camera and the human eye, the film of the camera functions as the
A. iris    
B. pupil
C. cornea          
D. retina

29. An object 4 cm high is placed 15 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 5 cm. The size of the image is ___.
A. 3 cm
B. 5 cm
C. 4 cm
D. 2 cm

30. An object is embedded in a block of ice, 10cm below the plane surface. If the refractive index of the ice is 1.50, the apparent depth of the object below the surface is
A. 67 cm            
B. 7.63 cm
C. 7.50 cm        
D. 2.50 cm

31. Which of the following is used for the correction of short-sightedness?
A. Concave lens
B. Concave mirror
C. Convex mirror
D. Convex lens

32. Dispersion occurs when white light passes through a glass prim because of the __.
A. different speeds of the colours in the glass
B. high density of the glass
C. defects in the glass
D. different hidden colours in the glass

33. When a positively charged rod is brought nearer the cap of a positively charged electroscope, the leaves divergence will __.
A. converge      
B. remain constant
C. diverge          
D. be induced

34. Three capacitors of capacitance, 2µF, 4µF and 8µF are connected in parallel and a
p.d of 6V is maintained across each capacitor, the total energy stored is __.
 A. 6.90 x 10-6 J  
 B. 6.90 x 10-4 J
 C. 2.52 x 10-4 J
D. 2.52 x 10-6 J

35. A cell of emf 12V and internal resistance 4Ω is connected to an external resistor of resistance 2 Ω Find the current flow.
A. 4 A
B. 2 A
C. 3 A
D. 5 A

36. The diagram above shows a balanced metre bridge the value of x is __.
A. 66.7 cm
B. 25.0 cm
C. 33.3 cm
D. 75.0 cm

37. Three 4 resistors connected in parallel have a potential difference of 16 v applied across them.  What is the total current in the circuit ?
A. 12 A
B. 8 A 
C. 10 A
D. 14 A

38. In the diagram above, a 200 W bulb is lighted by a 240 V a.c mains supply. If 1kWh is sold at 40, the cost of keeping the bulb lighted for a day is __. 
A. ₦ 192.00
B. ₦ 1.92
C.  19.20           
D.  1,920.00

39. Power supply is transmitted at a very high voltage and low current in order to __.
A. increase the power supply
B. prevent overheating of the coil
C. make it travel fast
D. make it pass through the transformers.

40. In the diagram above, if the south-poles of two magnets stroke a steel bar, the polarities at T and V will respectively be __.
A. north and south
B. south and south
C. north and north
D. south and north

41. A galvanometer with full-scale deflection of 10 mA is to be converted to a voltmeter with full-scale deflection of 5 V. If a series resistance of 498 is used for the conversion, the resistance of the galvanometer is  __.
A.  2   
B.  10Ω
C.  5
D. 1

42. Two inductors of inductances 5 mH and 15 mH are connected in series and a current of 5 A flows through them. The total energy stored in the inductors is ___.
 A. 250.0 J           
B. 50.0 J              
C. 62.5 J
D. 500.0 J

43. In alternating current circuit at resonance, the angle of lead or lag is ___.
A.  π°/2
B. 0°
C.  π°/3
D. π°

44. In Faraday’s law of electrolysis, a graph of mass deposited against the quantity of electricity is plotted. The slope of the graph gives __.
A. the electrochemical equivalent
B. the charge released
C. the current flowing
D. the energy released

45. In a discharge tube, most of the gas is pumped out so that electricity is conducted at
A. steady voltage
B. high pressure
C. high pressure
D. low voltage

46. The radioisotope decays by emitting two alpha particles, three beta particles and a gamma ray. What is the mass and atomic numbers of the resulting daughter element?
A. 91 and 227 
B. 92 and 238
C. 227 and 91 
D. 215 and 88

47. The ground state energy for a hydrogen atom is 5.44 x 10-19 J. If an electron drops from zero to ground state, calculate the frequency of the emitted radiation.
A. 2.0 x 1015Hz   
B . 2.0 x 1015Hz
C. 5.0 x 1015Hz  
D. 5.0 x 1016Hz
[h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js]

48. Transistors are used for the __.
A. conversion of a.c. to d.c.         
B.  conversion of d.c. to a.c.
C. amplification of signals
D. rectification of signals

49. A typical transistor characteristic is represented as ___.


50. Which of the following is a pure semiconductor?
A. Silicon             
B. Phosphorus
C. Transistor
D. Carbon

ANSWERS
S
1. B
2. D
3. D
4. A
5. D
6. C
7. C
8. B
9. A
10. C
11. D
12. D
13. D
14. A
15. A
16. C
17. A
18. C
19. B
20. A
21. D
22. C
23. A
24. C
25. D
26. B
27. D
28. D
29. D
30. A
31. A
32. A
33. C
34. C
35. B
36. C
37. A
38. A
39. B
40. C
41. A
42. A
43. A
44. A
45. B
46. A
47.
48. C
49. C
50.A

JAMB/UTME 2011 PHYSICS QUESTIONS (TEXT)

PAPER TYPE: C

1. Which Question Paper Type of Physics is given to you?
A. Type A       
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Type D

2. A carpenter on top of a roof 20.m high dropped a hammer of mass 1.5kg and it fell freely to the ground. The kinetic energy of the hammer just before hitting the ground is __.
A. 300 J         
B. 450 J
C. 600 J       
D. 150  J
[g = 10ms-2]

3. Two balls X and Y weighing 5g and 50kg respectively were thrown up vertically at the same time with a velocity of 100ms-1. How will their positions be one second later?
A. X will be 500m ahead of Y
B. X and Y will both be 500m from the point of throw 
C. X and Y will be 500m from each other 
D. Y will be 500 m ahead of X

4. A man standing on a lift that is descending does not feel any weight because __.
A. there is no reaction from the floor of the lift 
B. there is no gravitational pull on the man in the lift 
C. the inside of the lift is air tight 
D. the lift is in vacuum

5. The diagram above shows two vectors at right angles to each other. The value of the resultant vector is __.
A. 12.0 N       
B. 13.0 N
C. 14.0 N
D. 10.0 N

6. An object of mass 2kg moves with a velocity of 10ms-1round a circle of radius 4m. calculate the centripetal force on the object.
A. 50 N           
B. 40 N
C. 25 N       
D. 100 N

7. If it takes an object 3s to fall freely to the ground from a certain height, what is the distance covered by the object?
A. 45 m
B. 60 m
C. 90 m          
D. 30 m
[g = 10ms-2]

8. The diagrams above show the positions of a cone. The position which can be described as neutral equilibrium is represented as ___.
A. Y and Z  
B. Y and X    
C. Z only       
D. X only

9. If a tube of small radius opened at both ends is placed in a liquid, the liquid will __.
A. fall below the liquid level if the liquid does not wet the glass 
B. rise above the liquid level if the liquid does not wet the glass 
C. remain at the same level irrespective of whether the liquid wets the glass or not 
D. fall below the liquid level if the liquid wets the glass

10. I. Density of the liquid
  II. Depth below the surface of the liquid
 III. Surface area of the liquid
In which of the statement above will pressure be dependent?
A. I, II and III        
B. I and III only  
C. I and II only 
D. II and III only 

11. 
I. High thermal capacity
II. High sensitivity
III. Easy readability
IV. Accuracy over a wide range of temperatures
From the statements above, the qualities of a good thermometer are __.
A. I, III and IV             
B. II, III and IV  
C. I and II 
D. I, II, III and IV

12. A machine is used to lift a load of 20 N through a height of 10m. if the efficiency of the machine is 40%, how much work is done?
A. 300 J
B. 120 J
C. 80 J       
D. 500 J

13. Which of the following could be effectively used to reduce friction?
A. Water
B. Petrol
C. Kerosene    
D. Grease

14. A copper wire was subjected to a tensile stress of 7.7 x 107 Nm-2. Calculate the tensile strain of the wire.
A. 7.0 x 10-4      
B. 2.2 x 10-4      
C. 2.0 x 10-5      
D. 7.0 x 10-3      

[Young modulus = 1.1 x 10-11Nm-2]

15. An object weighs 22kg in water an 30kg in air. What is the up thrust exerted by the liquid on the object?
A. 220 N           
B. 80 N
C. 50 N         
D. 520 N.
[g = 10 ms-2  ]

16. A block of aluminium is heated electrically by a 30 W heater. If the temperature rises by 10°C in 5 minutes, the heat capacity of the aluminium is __.
A.100 JK-1      
B. 200 JK-1      
C. 900 JK-1        
D. 90 JK-1      

17. A perfect emitter or absorber of radiant energy is a __.
A. white body    
B. red body
C. conductor
D. black body.

18. The phenomenon that shows that increase in pressure lowers the melting point can be observed in __.

A. coagulation
B. regelation
C. sublimation
D. condensation

19. If the volume of a gas increases steadily as the temperature decreases at constant pressure, the gas obeys __.
A. pressure ’ law
B. Charles' law
C. Graham’s law
D. Boyle's law

20. Steam burn is more severe than that of boiling water because __.
A. water boils at a higher temperature 
B. steam burn is dependent on relative humidity 
C. steam burn is independent of relative humidity
D. steam possess greater heat energy per unit mass

21. Which of the following types of waves needs a medium for propagation?
A. Radio waves    
B. X-rays
C. Sound waves     
D. Light waves      

22. The ground is always cold at night because the __.
A. sun no longer shines at night 
B. atmosphere reflects the sun’s energy at night 
C. atmosphere absorbs the sun’s energy at night 
D. earth radiates heat to the atmosphere at night

23.  A metal of volume 40cm3  is heated from 30°C to 90°C, the increase in volume is __.
A. 1.20cm3  
B. 0.40cm3   
C. 0.12cm3         
D. 0.14cm3

[Linear expansivity of the metal= 2.0 x 10-5 K-1 ]

24. 
I. Change of state 
II. Diffusion 
III. Radiation 
IV. Osmosis
Which of the processes above can be explained using the kinetic theory?
A. I, III and IV   
B. I, II and IV   
C. I, II, III and IV   
D. I, II and III

 25. When the human eye loses its power of accommodation, the detect is known as __.
A. astigmatism 
B. long-sightedness 
C. short-sightedness 
D. presbyopia

26. A length of wire has a frequency of 255Hz when stretched by a force of 225 N. If the force increases to 324 N, what is the new frequency of vibration?
A. 488 Hz       
B. 356 Hz
C. 306 Hz     
D. 512 Hz

27.A certain far-sighted person cannot see objects that are closer to the eye than 50cm clearly. Determine the power of the converging lens which will enable him to see at 25cm.
A. 0.03 D       
B. 0.04 D
C. 0.06 D      
D. 0.02 D

28.  Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the highest frequency?
A. Infrared-rays        
B. X-rays  
C. Ultra-violet rays   
D. Radio waves

29.When a red rose flower is observed in blue light, what colour does the observer see?
A. Magenta 
B. Yellow         
C. Red  
D. Blue         

30.The eclipse of the sun occurs when the __.
A. moon is not completely hidden in the earth’s shadow
B. moon’s umbra falls on some part of the earth 
C. moon is between the sun and the earth 
D. earth is between the sun and the moon

31. A cannon is fired from town X. After how long is the sound heard at a town Y 4.95 km away?
A.12 s
B.15 s
C.30 s          
D.10 s

[velocity of sound in air = 333 ms-1 ]

32. An image in a convex lens is upright magnified 3 times. If the focal length of the lens is 15cm, what is the object distance?
A. 16 cm       
B. 14 cm
C. 10 cm      
D. 25 cm

33. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is 20 µF in air and 60 µF in the presence of a dielectric. What is the dielectric constant?
A. 3.0 
B. 2.0
C. 0.3
D. 6.0

34. In the circuit above, three resistors, 2Ω, 4 Ω and 12 Ω are connected in parallel and a 12 V battery is connected across the combination. The current flowing through the 12 Ω resistor is __.
A.  3.2 A         
B. 9.6 A
C. 14.4 A          
D. 1.0 A

35. If the charge of electricity per kWh is ₦4, what is the cost of operating an electrical appliance rated 2.50 V, 2 A for 6 hours?
A. ₦16         
B. ₦24
C. ₦28          
D. ₦12

36. The correct expression for the potential at a point, distance r from a charge q, in an electric field is __.

37. Three similar cells each of e.m.f 2V and internal resistance 2 Ω are connected in parallel, the total e.m.f and total internal resistance are respectively

A.   2 V, 6.0 Ω
B.   6 V, 0.7 Ω
C.   6 V, 6.0 Ω
D.   2 V, 0.7 Ω

38. In homes, electrical appliances and lamps are connected in parallel because __.
A. less voltage will be used
B. parallel connection does not heat up the wires
C. series connection uses high voltage
D. less current will be used.

39.  Two resistors 5 Ω and 10 Ω are arranged first in series and later in parallel to a 24 V source. The ratio of total power dissipated in the series and parallel arrangement respectively is __.
A. 50:1  
B. 3:5 5:3
C. 5:3        
D. 1:50    

40.  Which of the following will be applied when a metal x in electrolysis?
A. Y is the cathode and X is the anode
B. Y is the anode and very high current is used 
C. X is the anode and very high current is used
D.  X is the cathode and Y is the anode

41. A radioactive isotope has a decay constant of 10-5s-1  Calculate its half-life.
A. 6.93 x 10s
B. 6.93 x 10-6 s
C. 6.93 x 10-6 s
D. 6.93 x 10-5 s

42. Which of the following is a property of steel?
A. It can be used for making permanent magnets 
B. It can easily be magnetized and demagnetized 
C. It cannot retain its magnetism longer than iron 
D. It can be used for making temporary magnets

43. If the threshold frequency for tungsten is 1.3 x 1015Hz, what is its work function?
A.   8.85 x 10-17 J       
B.   8.58 x 10-18J
C.   8.58 x 10-19J       
D.   8.58 x 10-15 J

[h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js]

44. In an a.c. circuit, the ratio of r.m.s value to peak value of current is __


45.  Two inductors of inductances 4H and 8H are arranged in series and a current of 10A is passed through them. What is the energy stored in them?
A. 133 J         
B. 250 J
C. 500 J        
D. 133 J

46. Under which of the following conditions do gasses conduct electricity?
A. High pressure and low p.d
B. High pressure and high p.d
C. Low pressure and low p.d
D. Low pressure and high p.d

47. In measuring high frequency a.c., the instrument used is the __.
A. moving iron ammeter 
B. hot wire ammeter 
C. d.c. ammeter    
D. moving coil ammeter

48. The bond between silicon and germanium is __.
A. dative 
B. electrovalent 
C. covalent 
D. ionic         

49. Which of the following materials has an increase in resistance with temperature?
A. Wood
B. Electrolyte 
C. Water    
D. Metals      

50. The electrical properties of germination can be altered drastically by the addition of impurities. The process is referred to as __.

A. amplification
B. doping
C. saturation
D. bonding    

ANSWERS

1. C
2. A
3. B
4. A
5. D
6. A
7. A
8. C
9. A
10. A
11. C
12. D
13. D
14. A
15. B
16. C
17. D
18. B
19. B
20. D
21. C
22. D
23. D
24. B
25. D
26. C
27. C
28. B
29. A
30. C
31. B
32. C
33. A
34. D
35. D
36. B
37. D
38. A
39. 2:9
40. A
41. A
42. A
43. C
44. A
45. A
46. D
47. B
48. C
49. D
50. B